QUESTION 551
The key benefit of the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group is the ability to:
A. establish and manage project communication channels, both external and internal to the project team.
B. influence the stakeholders that want to circumvent integrated change control so that their changes are implemented.
C. monitor the ongoing project team against the team performance assessments and the project performance baseline.
D. observe and measure project performance regularly and consistently to identify variances from the project management plan.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
• Monitoring and Controlling Process Group. Those processes required to track, review, and regulate the progress and performance of the project; identify any areas in which changes to the plan are required; and initiate the corresponding changes.
4.2.3.1 Project Management Plan
The project management plan is the document that describes how the project will be executed, monitored, and controlled. It integrates and consolidates all of the subsidiary plans and baselines from the planning processes. Project baselines include, but are not limited to:
Scope baseline (Section 5.4.3.1), Schedule baseline (Section 6.6.3.1), and Cost baseline (Section 7.3.3.1).
Subsidiary plans include, but are not limited to:
Scope management plan (Section 5.1.3.1), Requirements management plan (Section 5.1.3.2), Schedule management plan (Section 6.1.3.1), Cost management plan (Section 7.1.3.1),
Quality management plan (Section 8.1.3.1), Process improvement plan (Section 8.1.3.2),
Human resource management plan (Section 9.1.3.1), Communications management plan (Section 10.1.3.1), Risk management plan (Section 11.1.3.1), Procurement management plan (Section 12.1.3.1), and Stakeholder management plan (Section 13.2.3.1).
Among other things, the project management plan may also include the following:
Life cycle selected for the project and the processes that will be applied to each phase; Details of the tailoring decisions specified by the project management team as follows:
○ Project management processes selected by the project management team,
○ Level of implementation for each selected process,
○ Descriptions of the tools and techniques to be used for accomplishing those processes, and
○ Description of how the selected processes will be used to manage the specific project, including the dependencies and interactions among those processes and the essential inputs and outputs.
Description of how work will be executed to accomplish the project objectives;
Change management plan that documents how changes will be monitored and controlled;
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Configuration management plan that documents how Configuration management will be performed; Description of how the integrity of the project baselines will be maintained;
Requirements and techniques for communication among stakeholders; and
Key management reviews for content, the extent of, and timing to address, open issues and pending decisions.
The project management plan may be either summary level or detailed, and may be composed of one or more subsidiary plans. Each of the subsidiary plans is detailed to the extent required by the specific project. Once the project management plan is baselined, it may only be changed when a change request is generated and approved through the Perform Integrated Change Control process.
QUESTION 552
Which written document helps monitor who is responsible for resolving specific problems and concerns by a target date?
A. Project Plan
B. Responsibility Matrix
C. Issue Log
D. Scope Document
Correct Answer: C Section: Volume D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
9.4.1.4 Issue Log
Issues arise in the course of managing the project team. An issue log can be used to document and monitor who is responsible for resolving specific issues by a target date.
QUESTION 553
Who provides the inputs for the original estimates of activity durations for tasks on the project plan?
A. Project sponsor
B. Project manager
C. Person responsible for project scheduling
D. Person who is most familiar with the task
Correct Answer: D Section: Volume D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 554
Which of the following is the primary output of the Identify Risks process?
A. Risk management plan
B. Risk register
C. Change requests
D. Risk response plan
Correct Answer: B Section: Volume D Explanation
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Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Process: 11.2 Identify Risks
Definition: The process of determining which risks may affect the project and documenting their characteristics.
Key Benefit: The key benefit of this process is the documentation of existing risks and the knowledge and ability it provides to the project team to anticipate events.
Inputs
1. Risk management plan
2. Cost management plan
3. Schedule management plan
4. Quality management plan
5. Human resource management plan
6. Scope baseline
7. Activity cost estimates
8. Activity duration estimates
9. Stakeholder register
10. Project documents
11. Procurement documents
12. Enterprise environmental factors
13. Organizational process assets
Tools & Techniques
1. Documentation reviews
2. Information gathering techniques
3. Checklist analysis
4. Assumptions analysis
5. Diagramming techniques
6. SWOT analysis
7. Expert judgment
Outputs
1. Risk register
11.2.3.1 Risk Register
The primary output from Identify Risks is the initial entry into the risk register. The risk register is a document in which the results of risk analysis and risk response planning are recorded. It contains the outcomes of the other risk management processes as they are conducted, resulting in an increase in the level and type of information contained in the risk register over time. The preparation of the risk register begins in the Identify Risks process with the following information, and then becomes available to other project management and risk management processes:
List of identified risks. The identified risks are described in as much detail as is reasonable. A structure for describing risks using risk statements may be applied, for example, EVENT may occur causing IMPACT, or If CAUSE exists, EVENT may occur leading to EFFECT. In addition to the list of identified risks, the root causes of those risks may become more evident. These are the fundamental conditions or events that may give rise to one or more identified risks. They should be recorded and used to support future risk identification for this and other projects.
List of potential responses. Potential responses to a risk may sometimes be identified during the Identify Risks process. These responses, if identified in this process, should be used as inputs to the Plan Risk Responses process.
QUESTION 555
Which type of elaboration allows a project management team to manage at a greater level of detail as the project evolves?
A. Cyclic
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B. Progressive
C. Repetitive
D. Iterative
Correct Answer: B Section: Volume D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 556
Which of the following helps to ensure that each requirement adds business value by linking it to the business and project objectives?
A. Requirements traceability matrix
B. Work breakdown structure (WBS) dictionary
C. Requirements management plan
D. Requirements documentation
Correct Answer: A Section: Volume D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
5.2.3.2 Requirements Traceability Matrix
The requirements traceability matrix is a grid that links product requirements from their origin to the deliverables that satisfy them. The implementation of a requirements traceability matrix helps ensure that each requirement adds business value by linking it to the business and project objectives. It provides a means to track requirements throughout the project life cycle, helping to ensure that requirements approved in the requirements documentation are delivered at the end of the project. Finally, it provides a structure for managing changes to the product scope.
Tracing includes, but is not limited to, tracing requirements for the following:
Business needs, opportunities, goals, and objectives; Project objectives;
Project scope/WBS deliverables; Product design;
Product development;
Test strategy and test scenarios; and
High-level requirements to more detailed requirements.
Attributes associated with each requirement can be recorded in the requirements traceability matrix. These attributes help to define key information about the requirement. Typical attributes used in the requirements traceability matrix may include: a unique identifier, a textual description of the requirement, the rationale for inclusion, owner, source, priority, version, current status (such as active, cancelled, deferred, added, approved, assigned, completed), and status date. Additional attributes to ensure that the requirement has met stakeholders’ satisfaction may include stability, complexity, and acceptance criteria.
QUESTION 557
Which category of contracts are sellers legally obligated to complete, with possible financial damages if the project objectives are not met?
A. Cost-reimbursable contracts
B. Time and Material contracts (T&M)
C. Fixed-price contracts
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D. Cost Plus Fixed Fee Contracts (CPFF)
Correct Answer: C Section: Volume D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Fixed-price contracts. This category of contracts involves setting a fixed total price for a defined product, service, or result to be provided. Fixed-price contracts may also incorporate financial incentives for achieving or exceeding selected project objectives, such as schedule delivery dates, cost and technical performance, or anything that can be quantified and subsequently measured. Sellers under fixed-price contracts are legally obligated to complete such contracts, with possible financial damages if they do not. Under the fixed-price arrangement, buyers need to precisely specify the product or services being procured. Changes in scope may be accommodated, but generally with an increase in contract price.
QUESTION 558
Types of internal failure costs include:
A. inspections.
B. equipment and training.
C. lost business.
D. reworking and scrapping.
Correct Answer: D Section: Volume D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 559
In a weak matrix, the project managers role is:
A. part-time
B. full-time
C. occasional
D. unlimited
Correct Answer: A Section: Volume D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Project managers have the highest level of power and authority in a projectized organization. They also have high levels of power and authority in a strong matrix; however, a matrix organization is a blend of functional and projectized organizations, and therefore, the project manager does not have quite the same level of authority as they would in a projectized organization.
QUESTION 560
Which of the following is an example of schedule compression?
A. Activity sequencing
B. Resource leveling
C. Lead and lag adjusting
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D. Crashing
Correct Answer: D Section: Volume D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
6.6.2.7 Schedule Compression
Schedule compression techniques are used to shorten the schedule duration without reducing the project scope, in order to meet schedule constraints, imposed dates, or other schedule objectives. Schedule compression techniques include, but are not limited to:
Crashing. A technique used to shorten the schedule duration for the least incremental cost by adding resources. Examples of crashing include approving overtime, bringing in additional resources, or paying to expedite delivery to activities on the critical path. Crashing works only for activities on the critical path where additional resources will shorten the activity’s duration. Crashing does not always produce a viable alternative and may result in increased risk and/or cost.
Fast tracking. A schedule compression technique in which activities or phases normally done in sequence are performed in parallel for at least a portion of their duration. An example is constructing the foundation for a building before completing all of the architectural drawings. Fast tracking may result in rework and increased risk. Fast tracking only works if activities can be overlapped to shorten the project duration.
QUESTION 561
Which of the following types of a dependency determination is used to define the sequence of activities?
A. Legal
B. Discretionary
C. Internal
D. Resource
Correct Answer: B Section: Volume D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
6.3.2.2 Dependency Determination
Dependencies may be characterized by the following attributes: mandatory or discretionary, internal or external, as described below. Dependency has four attributes, but two can be applicable at the same time in following ways: mandatory external dependencies, mandatory internal dependencies, discretionary external dependencies, or discretionary internal dependencies.
Mandatory dependencies. Mandatory dependencies are those that are legally or contractually required or inherent in the nature of the work. Mandatory dependencies often involve physical limitations, such as on a construction project, where it is impossible to erect the superstructure until after the foundation has been built, or on an electronics project, where a prototype has to be built before it can be tested. Mandatory dependencies are also sometimes referred to as hard logic or hard dependencies. Technical dependencies may not be mandatory. The project team determines which dependencies are mandatory during the process of sequencing the activities. Mandatory dependencies should not be confused with assigning schedule constraints in the scheduling tool.
Discretionary dependencies. Discretionary dependencies are sometimes referred to as preferred logic, preferential logic, or soft logic. Discretionary dependencies are established based on knowledge of best practices within a particular application area or some unusual aspect of the project where a specific sequence is desired, even though there may be other acceptable sequences. Discretionary dependencies should be fully documented since they can create arbitrary total float values and can limit later scheduling options. When fast tracking techniques are employed, these discretionary dependencies should be reviewed and considered for modifcation or removal. The project team determines which dependencies are discretionary during the process of sequencing the activities.
External dependencies. External dependencies involve a relationship between project activities and non-
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project activities. These dependencies are usually outside the project team’s control. For example, the testing activity in a software project may be dependent on the delivery of hardware from an external source, or governmental environmental hearings may need to be held before site preparation can begin on a construction project. The project management team determines which dependencies are external during the process of sequencing the activities.
Internal dependencies. Internal dependencies involve a precedence relationship between project activities and are generally inside the project team’s control. For example, if the team cannot test a machine until they assemble it, this is an internal mandatory dependency. The project management team determines which dependencies are internal during the process of sequencing the activities.
QUESTION 562
Control charts, flowcharting, histograms, Pareto charts, and scatter diagrams are tools and techniques of which process?
A. Perform Quality Control
B. Perform Quality Assurance
C. Plan Quality
D. Report Performance
Correct Answer: C Section: Volume D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 563
Co-location is a tool and technique of:
A. Develop Human Resource Plan.
B. Manage Project Team.
C. Develop Project Team.
D. Acquire Project Team.
Correct Answer: C Section: Volume D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
9.3.2.5 Colocation
Colocation, also referred to as “tight matrix,” involves placing many or all of the most active project team members in the same physical location to enhance their ability to perform as a team. Colocation can be temporary, such as at strategically important times during the project, or for the entire project. Colocation strategies can include a team meeting room (sometimes called “war room”), places to post schedules, and other conveniences that enhance communication and a sense of community. While colocation is considered a good strategy, the use of virtual teams can bring benefits such as the use of more skilled resources, reduced costs, less travel, and relocation expenses and the proximity of team members to suppliers, customers, or other key stakeholders.
Process: 9.3 Develop Project Team
Definition: The process of improving competencies, team member interaction, and overall team environment to enhance project performance. The key benefit of this process is that it results in improved teamwork, enhanced people skills and competencies, motivated employees, reduced staff turnover rates, and improved overall project performance.
Key Benefit: The key benefit of this process is that it results in improved teamwork, enhanced people skills and competencies, motivated employees, reduced staff turnover rates, and improved overall project performance.
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Inputs
1. Human resource management plan
2. Project staff assignments
3. Resource calendars
Tools & Techniques
1. Interpersonal skills
2. Training
3. Team-building activities
4. Ground rules
5. Colocation
6. Recognition and rewards
7. Personnel assessment tools
Outputs
1. Team performance assessments
2. Enterprise environmental factors updates
QUESTION 564
During which process would stakeholders provide formal acceptance of the completed project scope?
A. Perform Quality Control
B. Verify Scope
C. Control Scope
D. Develop Schedule
Correct Answer: B Section: Volume D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 565
The PV is $1000, EV is $2000, and AC is $1500. What is CPI?
A. 1.33
B. 2
C. 0.75
D. 0.5
Correct Answer: A Section: Volume D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
CPI = EV / AC
QUESTION 566
A given schedule activity is most likely to last four weeks. In a best-case scenario, the schedule activity is estimated to last two weeks. In a worst-case scenario, the schedule activity is estimated to last 12 weeks. Given these three estimates, what is the expected duration of the activity?
A. Three weeks
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B. Four weeks
C. Five weeks
D. Six weeks
Correct Answer: C Section: Volume D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
6.5.2.4 Three-Point Estimating
The accuracy of single-point activity duration estimates may be improved by considering estimation uncertainty and risk. This concept originated with the program evaluation and review technique (PERT). PERT uses three estimates to define an approximate range for an activity’s duration:
Most likely (tM). This estimate is based on the duration of the activity, given the resources likely to be assigned, their productivity, realistic expectations of availability for the activity, dependencies on other participants, and interruptions.
Optimistic (tO). The activity duration based on analysis of the best-case scenario for the activity.
Pessimistic (tP). The activity duration based on analysis of the worst-case scenario for the activity. Depending on the assumed distribution of values within the range of the three estimates the expected duration, tE, can be calculated using a formula. Two commonly used formulas are triangular and beta distributions.
The formulas are:
Triangular Distribution. tE = (tO + tM + tP) / 3
Beta Distribution (from the traditional PERT technique). tE = (tO + 4tM + tP) / 6
Duration estimates based on three points with an assumed distribution provide an expected duration and clarify the range of uncertainty around the expected duration.
Formula:
E = (a + 4m + b) / 6
Application:
(2+ (4*4) +12)=30 /6 =5
QUESTION 567
What is the primary benefit of meeting quality requirements?
A. Quality metrics
B. Less rework
C. Quality control measurements
D. Benchmarking
Correct Answer: B Section: Volume D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 568
What is a tool to improve team performance?
A. Staffing plan
B. External feedback
C. Performance reports
D. Co-location
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Correct Answer: D Section: Volume D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
9.3.2.5 Colocation
Colocation, also referred to as “tight matrix,” involves placing many or all of the most active project team members in the same physical location to enhance their ability to perform as a team. Colocation can be temporary, such as at strategically important times during the project, or for the entire project. Colocation strategies can include a team meeting room (sometimes called “war room”), places to post schedules, and other conveniences that enhance communication and a sense of community. While colocation is considered a good strategy, the use of virtual teams can bring benefits such as the use of more skilled resources, reduced costs, less travel, and relocation expenses and the proximity of team members to suppliers, customers, or other key stakeholders.
Process: 9.3 Develop Project Team
Definition: The process of improving competencies, team member interaction, and overall team environment to enhance project performance. The key benefit of this process is that it results in improved teamwork, enhanced people skills and competencies, motivated employees, reduced staff turnover rates, and improved overall project performance.
Key Benefit: The key benefit of this process is that it results in improved teamwork, enhanced people skills and competencies, motivated employees, reduced staff turnover rates, and improved overall project performance.
Inputs
1. Human resource management plan
2. Project staff assignments
3. Resource calendars
Tools & Techniques
1. Interpersonal skills
2. Training
3. Team-building activities
4. Ground rules
5. Colocation
6. Recognition and rewards
7. Personnel assessment tools
Outputs
1. Team performance assessments
2. Enterprise environmental factors updates
QUESTION 569
Which tool within the Perform Quality Control process identifies whether or not a process has a predictable performance?
A. Cause and effect diagram
B. Control charts
C. Pareto chart
D. Histogram
Correct Answer: B Section: Volume D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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Explanation:
• Control charts, are used to determine whether or not a process is stable or has predictable performance.
Upper and lower specification limits are based on requirements of the agreement. They reflect the maximum and minimum values allowed. There may be penalties associated with exceeding the specification limits.
Upper and lower control limits are different from specification limits. The control limits are determined using standard statistical calculations and principles to ultimately establish the natural capability for a stable process. The project manager and appropriate stakeholders may use the statistically calculated control limits to identify the points at which corrective action will be taken to prevent unnatural performance. The corrective action typically seeks to maintain the natural stability of a stable and capable process. For repetitive processes, the control limits are generally set at ±3 s around a process mean that has been set at 0 s. A process is considered out of control when: (1) a data point exceeds a control limit; (2) seven consecutive plot points are above the mean; or (3) seven consecutive plot points are below the mean. Control charts can be used to monitor various types of output variables.
Although used most frequently to track repetitive activities required for producing manufactured lots, control charts may also be used to monitor cost and schedule variances, volume, and frequency of scope changes, or other management results to help determine if the project management processes are in control.
QUESTION 570
Based on the following metrics: EV= $20,000, AC= $22,000, and PV= $28,000, what is the project CV?
A. -8000
B. -2000
C. 2000
D. 8000
Correct Answer: B Section: Volume D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 571
Which type of risk diagram is useful for showing time ordering of events?
A. Ishikawa
B. Milestone
C. Influence
D. Decision tree
Correct Answer: C Section: Volume D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 572
In a construction project schedule, what is the logical relationship between the delivery of the concrete materials and the pouring of concrete?
A. Start-to-start (SS)
B. Start-to-finish (SF)
C. Finish-to-finish (FF)
D. Finish-to-start (FS)
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Correct Answer: D Section: Volume D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 573
A required input for Create WBS is a project:
A. quality plan.
B. schedule network.
C. management document update.
D. scope statement.
Correct Answer: D Section: Volume D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
5.3.3.1 Project Scope Statement
The project scope statement is the description of the project scope, major deliverables, assumptions, and constraints. The project scope statement documents the entire scope, including project and product scope. It describes, in detail, the project’s deliverables and the work required to create those deliverables. It also provides a common understanding of the project scope among project stakeholders. It may contain explicit scope exclusions that can assist in managing stakeholder expectations. It enables the project team to perform more detailed planning, guides the project team’s work during execution, and provides the baseline for evaluating whether requests for changes or additional work are contained within or outside the project’s boundaries.
The degree and level of detail to which the project scope statement defines the work that will be performed and the work that is excluded can help determine how well the project management team can control the overall project scope. The detailed project scope statement, either directly, or by reference to other documents, includes the following:
Product scope description. Progressively elaborates the characteristics of the product, service, or result described in the project charter and requirements documentation.
Acceptance criteria. A set of conditions that is required to be met before deliverables are accepted.
Deliverable. Any unique and verifiable product, result, or capability to perform a service that is required to be produced to complete a process, phase, or project. Deliverables also include ancillary results, such as project management reports and documentation. These deliverables may be described at a summary level or in great detail.
Project exclusion. Generally identifies what is excluded from the project. Explicitly stating what is out of scope for the project helps to manage stakeholders’ expectations.
Constraints. A limiting factor that affects the execution of a project or process. Constraints identified with the project scope statement list and describe the specific internal or external restrictions or limitations associated with the project scope that affect the execution of the project, for example, a predefined budget or any imposed dates or schedule milestones that are issued by the customer or performing organization. When a project is performed under an agreement, contractual provisions will generally be constraints. Information on constraints may be listed in the project scope statement or in a separate log.
Assumptions. A factor in the planning process that is considered to be true, real, or certain, without proof or demonstration. Also describes the potential impact of those factors if they prove to be false. Project teams frequently identify, document, and validate assumptions as part of their planning process. Information on assumptions may be listed in the project scope statement or in a separate log.
The project team must complete a scope statement for developing a common understanding of the project scope among stakeholders. This lists project deliverables – summary level sub-products, whose full and satisfactory delivery marks the completion of the project.
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Process: 5.4 Create WBS
Definition: WBS is the process of subdividing project deliverables and project work into smaller, more manageable components.
Key Benefit: The key benefit of this process is that it provides a structured vision of what has to be delivered.
Inputs
1. Scope management plan
2. Project scope statement
3. Requirements documentation
4. Enterprise environmental factors
5. Organizational process assets
Tools & Techniques
1. Decomposition
2. Expert judgment
Outputs
1. Scope baseline
2. Project documents updates
QUESTION 574
Which of the following statements is true regarding project and product lifecycles?
A. A single product lifecycle may consist of multiple project lifecycles.
B. A product lifecycle is always shorter than the project lifecycle.
C. A single product lifecycle can only have one project lifecycle.
D. A single project lifecycle may consist of multiple product lifecycles.
Correct Answer: A Section: Volume D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 575
Which tool or technique is used in Close Procurements?
A. Contract plan
B. Procurement plan
C. Closure process
D. Procurement audits
Correct Answer: D Section: Volume D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
12.4.2.1 Procurement Audits
A procurement audit is a structured review of the procurement process originating from the Plan Procurement Management process through Control Procurements. The objective of a procurement audit is to identify successes and failures that warrant recognition in the preparation or administration of other procurement contracts on the project, or on other projects within the performing organization.
12.4 Close Procurements
The process of completing each project procurement.
Key Benefit: The key benefit of this process is that it documents agreements and related documentation for future reference.
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Inputs
1. Project management plan
2. Procurement documents
Tools & Techniques
1. Procurement audits
2. Procurement negotiations
3. Records management system
Outputs
1. Closed procurements
2. Organizational process assets updates
QUESTION 576
Which of the following is an output of Direct and Manage Project Execution?
A. Project management plan
B. Change request status updates
C. Organizational process assets updates
D. Work performance information
Correct Answer: D Section: Volume D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 577
Which of the following is an input to Develop Human Resource Plan?
A. Team performance assessment
B. Roles and responsibilities
C. Staffing management plan
D. Enterprise environmental factors
Correct Answer: D Section: Volume D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 578
Which of the following outputs from the Control Schedule process aids in the communication of schedule variance (SV), schedule performance index (SPI), or any performance status to stakeholders?
A. Performance organizations
B. Schedule baselines
C. Work performance measurements
D. Change requests
Correct Answer: C Section: Volume D Explanation
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Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 579
Testing falls into which of the following categories of cost of quality?
A. Internal failure costs
B. Prevention costs
C. Appraisal costs
D. External failure costs
Correct Answer: C Section: Volume D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Cost of Quality. (COQ) A method of determining the costs incurred to ensure quality. Prevention and appraisal costs (cost of conformance) include costs for quality planning, quality control (QC), and quality assurance to ensure compliance to requirements (i.e., training, QC systems, etc.). Failure costs (cost of nonconformance) include costs to rework products, components, or processes that are non-compliant, costs of warranty work and waste, and loss of reputation.
QUESTION 580
Another name for an Ishikawa diagram is:
A. cause and effect diagram.
B. control chart.
C. flowchart.
D. histogram.
Correct Answer: A Section: Volume D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 581
Which standard has interrelationships to other project management disciplines such as program management and portfolio management?
A. Program Management Body of Knowledge Guide
B. The Standard for Program Management
C. Organizational Project Management Maturity Model (OPM3$)
D. Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge (PMBOK®)
Correct Answer: D Section: Volume D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 582
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Which of the following strategies is used to deal with risks that may have a negative impact on project objectives?
A. Exploit
B. Share
C. Enhance
D. Transfer
Correct Answer: D Section: Volume D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
11.5.2.1 Strategies for Negative Risks or Threats
Three strategies, which typically deal with threats or risks that may have negative impacts on project objectives if they occur, are: avoid, transfer, and mitigate. The fourth strategy, accept, can be used for negative risks or threats as well as positive risks or opportunities. Each of these risk response strategies have varied and unique influence on the risk condition. These strategies should be chosen to match the risk’s probability and impact on the project’s overall objectives. Avoidance and mitigation strategies are usually good strategies for critical risks with high impact, while transference and acceptance are usually good strategies for threats that are less critical and with low overall impact. The four strategies for dealing with negative risks or threats are further described as follows:
Avoid. Risk avoidance is a risk response strategy whereby the project team acts to eliminate the threat or protect the project from its impact. It usually involves changing the project management plan to eliminate the threat entirely. The project manager may also isolate the project objectives from the risk’s impact or change the objective that is in jeopardy. Examples of this include extending the schedule, changing the strategy, or reducing scope. The most radical avoidance strategy is to shut down the project entirely. Some risks that arise early in the project can be avoided by clarifying requirements, obtaining information, improving communication, or acquiring expertise.
Transfer. Risk transference is a risk response strategy whereby the project team shifts the impact of a threat to a third party, together with ownership of the response. Transferring the risk simply gives another party responsibility for its management—it does not eliminate it. Transferring does not mean disowning the risk by transferring it to a later project or another person without his or her knowledge or agreement. Risk transference nearly always involves payment of a risk premium to the party taking on the risk. Transferring liability for risk is most effective in dealing with financial risk exposure. Transference tools can be quite diverse and include, but are not limited to, the use of insurance, performance bonds, warranties, guarantees, etc. Contracts or agreements may be used to transfer liability for specified risks to another party. For example, when a buyer has capabilities that the seller does not possess, it may be prudent to transfer some work and its concurrent risk contractually back to the buyer. In many cases, use of a cost-plus contract may transfer the cost risk to the buyer, while a fixed-price contract may transfer risk to the seller.
Mitigate. Risk mitigation is a risk response strategy whereby the project team acts to reduce the probability of occurrence or impact of a risk. It implies a reduction in the probability and/or impact of an adverse risk to be within acceptable threshold limits. Taking early action to reduce the probability and/or impact of a risk occurring on the project is often more effective than trying to repair the damage after the risk has occurred.
Adopting less complex processes, conducting more tests, or choosing a more stable supplier are examples of mitigation actions. Mitigation may require prototype development to reduce the risk of scaling up from a bench- scale model of a process or product. Where it is not possible to reduce probability, a mitigation response might address the risk impact by targeting linkages that determine the severity. For example, designing redundancy into a system may reduce the impact from a failure of the original component.
Accept. Risk acceptance is a risk response strategy whereby the project team decides to acknowledge the risk and not take any action unless the risk occurs. This strategy is adopted where it is not possible or cost- effective to address a specific risk in any other way. This strategy indicates that the project team has decided not to change the project management plan to deal with a risk, or is unable to identify any other suitable response strategy. This strategy can be either passive or active. Passive acceptance requires no action except to document the strategy, leaving the project team to deal with the risks as they occur, and to periodically review the threat to ensure that it does not change significantly. The most common active acceptance strategy
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is to establish a contingency reserve, including amounts of time, money, or resources to handle the risks.
QUESTION 583
Which of the following correctly explains the term “progressive elaboration’?
A. Changing project specifications continuously
B. Elaborate tracking of the project progress
C. Elaborate tracking of the project specifications with a change control system
D. Project specifications becoming more explicit and detailed as the project progresses
Correct Answer: D Section: Volume D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Progressive Elaboration. The iterative process of increasing the level of detail in a project management plan as greater amounts of information and more accurate estimates become available.
QUESTION 584
A project has an EV of 100 workdays, an AC of 120 workdays, and a PV of 80 workdays. What should be the concern?
A. There is a cost underrun.
B. There is a cost overrun.
C. The project may not meet the deadline.
D. The project is 20 days behind schedule.
Correct Answer: B Section: Volume D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Earned Value (EV) = 100 Actual Cost (AC) = 120 Planned Value (PV) = 80
QUESTION 585
Which characteristic do projects and operational work share in common?
A. Performed by systems
B. Constrained by limited resources
C. Repetitiveness
D. Uniqueness
Correct Answer: B Section: Volume D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 586
What does a CPI value greater than 1.0 indicate?
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A. Cost right at the estimated value
B. Cost under the estimated value
C. Cost right at the actual value
D. Cost over the estimated value
Correct Answer: B Section: Volume D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
CPI = EV / AC
QUESTION 587
Which of the following is an output from Control Scope?
A. Change requests
B. Variance analysis
C. Accepted deliverables
D. Requirements documentation
Correct Answer: A Section: Volume D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Process: 5.6 Control Scope
Definition: The process of monitoring the status of the project and product scope and managing changes to the scope baseline.
Key Benefit: The key benefit of this process is that it allows the scope baseline to be maintained throughout the project.
Inputs
Project management plan Requirements documentation Requirements traceability matrix Work performance data Organizational process assets
Tools & Techniques
Variance analysis
Outputs
Work performance information
Change requests
Project management plan updates Project documents updates Organizational process assets updates
QUESTION 588
Managing procurement relationships and monitoring contract performance are part of which process?
A. Conduct Procurements
B. Plan Procurements
C. Administer Procurements
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D. Close Procurements
Correct Answer: C Section: Volume D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 589
Which technique is commonly used for the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process?
A. Brainstorming
B. Strategies for opportunities
C. Decision tree analysis
D. Risk data quality assessment
Correct Answer: C Section: Volume D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Decision Tree Analysis. A diagramming and calculation technique for evaluating the implications of a chain of multiple options in the presence of uncertainty.
– Can only be used with discrete data.
Process: 11.4 Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
Definition: The process of numerically analyzing the effect of identified risks on overall project objectives.
Key Benefit: The key benefit of this process is that it produces quantitative risk information to support decision making in order to reduce project uncertainty.
Inputs
Risk management plan Cost management plan Schedule management plan Risk register
Enterprise environmental factors Organizational process assets
Tools & Techniques
Data gathering and representation techniques Quantitative risk analysis and modeling techniques Expert judgment
Outputs
1. Project documents updates
QUESTION 590
In which type of organizational structure are staff members grouped by specialty?
A. Functional
B. Projectized
C. Matrix
D. Balanced
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Correct Answer: A Section: Volume D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 591
Which of the following is an input to the Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process?
A. Risk register
B. Risk data quality assessment
C. Risk categorization
D. Risk urgency
Correct Answer: A Section: Volume D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
11.2.3.1 Risk Register
The primary output from Identify Risks is the initial entry into the risk register. The risk register is a document in which the results of risk analysis and risk response planning are recorded. It contains the outcomes of the other risk management processes as they are conducted, resulting in an increase in the level and type of information contained in the risk register over time. The preparation of the risk register begins in the Identify Risks process with the following information, and then becomes available to other project management and risk management processes:
List of identified risks. The identified risks are described in as much detail as is reasonable. A structure for describing risks using risk statements may be applied, for example, EVENT may occur causing IMPACT, or If CAUSE exists, EVENT may occur leading to EFFECT. In addition to the list of identified risks, the root causes of those risks may become more evident. These are the fundamental conditions or events that may give rise to one or more identified risks. They should be recorded and used to support future risk identification for this and other projects.
List of potential responses. Potential responses to a risk may sometimes be identified during the Identify Risks process. These responses, if identified in this process, should be used as inputs to the Plan Risk Responses process.
Process: 11.3 Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
Definition: The process of prioritizing risks for further analysis or action by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact.
Key Benefit: The key benefit of this process is that it enables project managers to reduce the level of uncertainty and to focus on high-priority risks.
Inputs
1. Risk management plan
2. Scope baseline
3. Risk register
4. Enterprise environmental factors
5. Organizational process assets
Tools & Techniques
1. Risk probability and impact assessment
2. Probability and impact matrix
3. Risk data quality assessment
4. Risk categorization
5. Risk urgency assessment
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6. Expert judgment
Outputs
1. Project documents updates
QUESTION 592
Which of the following Process Groups covers all Project Management Knowledge Areas?
A. Executing
B. Monitoring and Controlling
C. Planning
D. Initiating
Correct Answer: C Section: Volume D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 593
The process of identifying the stakeholders’ information needs is completed during:
A. Plan Communications.
B. Manage Stakeholder Expectations.
C. Stakeholder Analysis.
D. Identify Stakeholders.
Correct Answer: A Section: Volume D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Process: 10.1 Plan Communications Management
Definition: The process of developing an appropriate approach and plan for project communications based on stakeholder’s information needs and requirements, and available organizational assets.
Key Benefit: The key benefit of this process is that it identifies and documents the approach to communicate most effectively and efficiently with stakeholders.
Inputs
1. Project management plan
2. Stakeholder register
3. Enterprise environmental factors
4. Organizational process assets
Tools & Techniques
1. Communication requirements analysis
2. Communication technology
3. Communication models
4. Communication methods
5. Meetings
Outputs
1. Communications management plan
2. Project documents updates
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QUESTION 594
What is the most accurate rough order of magnitude (ROM)?
A. In the Initiation phase, the estimate is in the range of +/- 50%.
B. In the Planning phase, the estimate is in the range of +/- 50%.
C. In the Monitoring and Controlling phase, the estimate is in the range of +/- 15%.
D. In the Closing phase, the estimate is in the range of +/- 15%.
Correct Answer: A Section: Volume D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A rough order of magnitude (ROM) estimate is the least accurate estimate. A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge (The PMBOK® Guide), 5th Edition gives the guidelines that ROMs are -50% to +50% accurate, the PMBOK Guide 5th Edition gives the guidelines that ROMs are -25% to +75% accurate, or potentially even larger. It should be noted that stated percentages are not the main takeaway are not likely specifically tested on; it is more the concept and idea that ROMs are a rough estimate, are used early in the project when info is limited, and are hence the least accurate.
QUESTION 595
Project contracts generally fall into which of the following three broad categories?
A. Fixed-price, cost reimbursable, time and materials
B. Make-or-buy, margin analysis, fixed-price
C. Time and materials, fixed-price, margin analysis
D. Make-or-buy, lump-sum, cost-plus-incentive
Correct Answer: A Section: Volume D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 596
Which of the following events would result in a baseline update?
A. A project is behind schedule and the project manager wants the baseline to reflect estimated actual completion.
B. A customer has approved a change request broadening the project scope and increasing the budget.
C. One of the risks identified in the risk management plan occurs, resulting in a schedule delay.
D. One of the key project team resources has left the team and no replacement is available.
Correct Answer: B Section: Volume D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
5.6.3.3 Project Management Plan Updates
Project management plan updates may include, but are not limited to:
• Scope Baseline Updates. If the approved change requests have an effect on the project scope, then the scope statement, the WBS, and the WBS dictionary are revised and reissued to reflect the approved changes through Perform Integrated Change Control process.
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• Other Baseline Updates. If the approved change requests have an effect on the project besides the project scope, then the corresponding cost baseline and schedule baselines are revised and reissued to reflect the approved changes.
QUESTION 597
Which of the following schedule network analysis techniques is applied when a critical path method calculation has been completed and resources availability is critical?
A. Applying calendars
B. Resource leveling
C. Resource planning
D. Resource conflict management
Correct Answer: B Section: Volume D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
6.6.2.2 Critical Path Method
The critical path method, which is a method used to estimate the minimum project duration and determine the amount of scheduling flexibility on the logical network paths within the schedule model. This schedule network analysis technique calculates the early start, early finish, late start, and late finish dates for all activities without regard for any resource limitations by performing a forward and backward pass analysis through the schedule network, as shown in Figure 6-18. In this example the longest path includes activities A, C, and D, and, therefore, the sequence of A-C-D is the critical path. The critical path is the sequence of activities that represents the longest path through a project, which determines the shortest possible project duration. The resulting early and late start and finish dates are not necessarily the project schedule, rather they indicate the time periods within which the activity could be executed, using the parameters entered in the schedule model for activity durations, logical relationships, leads, lags, and other known constraints. The critical path method is used to calculate the amount of scheduling flexibility on the logical network paths within the schedule model.
On any network path, the schedule flexibility is measured by the amount of time that a schedule activity can be delayed or extended from its early start date without delaying the project finish date or violating a schedule constraint, and is termed “total float.” A CPM critical path is normally characterized by zero total float on the critical path. As implemented with PDM sequencing, critical paths may have positive, zero, or negative total float depending on constraints applied. Any activity on the critical path is called a critical path activity. Positive total float is caused when the backward pass is calculated from a schedule constraint that is later than the early finish date that has been calculated during forward pass calculation. Negative total float is caused when a constraint on the late dates is violated by duration and logic. Schedule networks may have multiple near- critical paths. Many software packages allow the user to define the parameters used to determine the critical path(s).
Adjustments to activity durations (if more resources or less scope can be arranged), logical relationships (if the relationships were discretionary to begin with), leads and lags, or other schedule constraints may be necessary to produce network paths with a zero or positive total float. Once the total float for a network path has been calculated, then the free float—the amount of time that a schedule activity can be delayed without delaying the early start date of any successor or violating a schedule constraint—can also be determined. For example the free float for Activity B, in Figure 6-18, is 5 days.
QUESTION 598
“Tailoring” is defined as the:
A. effort of addressing each process to determine which are appropriate and their appropriate degree of rigor.
B. act of creating a project team with the specialized skills required to produce a required product or service.
C. action taken to bring a defective or nonconforming component into compliance with requirements or specifications.
D. adjustment of the respective influences of time, cost, and quality in order to most efficiently achieve scope.
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Correct Answer: A Section: Volume D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 599
Which is an input to the Verify Scope process?
A. Performance report
B. Work breakdown structure (WBS)
C. Requested changes
D. Project management plan
Correct Answer: D Section: Volume D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 600
Which is an output from Distribute Information?
A. Earned value analysis
B. Trend analysis
C. Project records
D. Performance reviews
Correct Answer: C Section: Volume D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 601
Fast tracking is a schedule compression technique used to shorten the project schedule without changing project scope. Which of the following can result from fast tracking?
A. The risk of achieving the shortened project time is increased.
B. The critical path will have positive total float.
C. Contingency reserves are released for redeployment by the project manager.
D. Duration buffers are added to maintain a focus on planned activity durations.
Correct Answer: A Section: Volume E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Fast tracking is a compression technique that increases risk and potentially causes rework. Fast tracking is starting two projects previously scheduled to start one after the other at the same time.
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QUESTION 602
Requirements documentation, requirements management plan, and requirements traceability matrix are all outputs of which process?
A. Control Scope
B. Collect Requirements
C. Create WBS
D. Define Scope
Correct Answer: B Section: Volume E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 603
Which of the following is a strategy to deal with positive risks or opportunities?
A. Mitigate
B. Transfer
C. Exploit
D. Avoid
Correct Answer: C Section: Volume E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
11.5.2.2 Strategies for Positive Risks or Opportunities
Three of the four responses are suggested to deal with risks with potentially positive impacts on project objectives.
The fourth strategy, accept, can be used for negative risks or threats as well as positive risks or opportunities. These strategies, described below, are to exploit, share, enhance, and accept.
Exploit. The exploit strategy may be selected for risks with positive impacts where the organization wishes to ensure that the opportunity is realized. This strategy seeks to eliminate the uncertainty associated with a particular upside risk by ensuring the opportunity definitely happens. Examples of directly exploiting responses include assigning an organization’s most talented resources to the project to reduce the time to completion or using new technologies or technology upgrades to reduce cost and duration required to realize project objectives.
Enhance. The enhance strategy is used to increase the probability and/or the positive impacts of an opportunity. Identifying and maximizing key drivers of these positive-impact risks may increase the probability of their occurrence. Examples of enhancing opportunities include adding more resources to an activity to finish early.
Share. Sharing a positive risk involves allocating some or all of the ownership of the opportunity to a third party who is best able to capture the opportunity for the beneft of the project. Examples of sharing actions include forming risk-sharing partnerships, teams, special-purpose companies, or joint ventures, which can be established with the express purpose of taking advantage of the opportunity so that all parties gain from their actions.
Accept. Accepting an opportunity is being willing to take advantage of the opportunity if it arises, but not actively pursuing it.
QUESTION 604
What are the identified risks for doing excessive decomposition in a WBS?
A. Insufficient project funding and disqualification of sellers
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B. Insufficient project funding and ineffective use of resources
C. Disqualification of sellers and non-productive management efforts
D. Non-productive management effort and inefficient use of resources
Correct Answer: D Section: Volume E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
5.4.2.1 Decomposition
Decomposition is a technique used for dividing and subdividing the project scope and project deliverables into smaller, more manageable parts. The work package is the work defined at the lowest level of the WBS for which cost and duration can be estimated and managed. The level of decomposition is often guided by the degree of control needed to effectively manage the project. The level of detail for work packages will vary with the size and complexity of the project. Decomposition of the total project work into work packages generally involves the following activities:
Identifying and analyzing the deliverables and related work; Structuring and organizing the WBS;
Decomposing the upper WBS levels into lower-level detailed components; Developing and assigning identification codes to the WBS components; and Verifying that the degree of decomposition of the deliverables is appropriate.
QUESTION 605
Which statement is true about the project management body of knowledge?
A. Recognized by every project manager
B. Constantly evolving
C. The sum of all knowledge related to project management
D. A sum of knowledge that should be applied on every project
Correct Answer: B Section: Volume E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 606
The initial development of a Project Scope Management plan uses which technique?
A. Alternatives identification
B. Scope decomposition
C. Expert judgment
D. Product analysis
Correct Answer: C Section: Volume E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
4.1.2.1 Expert Judgment
Expert judgment is often used to assess the inputs used to develop the project charter. Expert judgment is applied to all technical and management details during this process. Such expertise is provided by any group or individual with specialized knowledge or training and is available from many sources, including:
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Other units within the organization, Consultants,
Stakeholders, including customers or sponsors, Professional and technical associations, Industry groups,
Subject matter experts (SME), and Project management office (PMO).
QUESTION 607
Which of the following is a project constraint?
A. Twenty-five percent staff turnover is expected.
B. The technology to be used is cutting-edge.
C. Project leadership may change due to volatile political environment.
D. The product is needed in 250 days.
Correct Answer: D Section: Volume E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 608
An input to the Estimate Activity Resources process is:
A. Activity resource requirements.
B. Published estimating data.
C. Resource calendars.
D. Resource breakdown structure (RBS).
Correct Answer: C Section: Volume E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Process: 6.4 Estimate Activity Resources
Definition: The process of estimating the type and quantities of material, human resources, equipment, or supplies required to perform each activity.
Key Benefit: The key benefit of this process is that it identifies the type, quantity, and characteristics of resources required to complete the activity which allows more accurate cost and duration estimates.
Inputs
1. Schedule management plan
2. Activity list
3. Activity attributes
4. Resource calendars
5. Risk register
6. Activity cost estimates
7. Enterprise environmental factors
8. Organizational process assets
Tools & Techniques
1. Expert judgment
2. Alternative analysis
3. Published estimating data
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4. Bottom-up estimating
5. Project management software
Outputs
1. Activity resource requirements
2. Resource breakdown structure
3. Project documents updates
QUESTION 609
The project budget is set at $150,000. The project duration is planned to be one year. At the completion of Week 16 of the project, the following information is collected: Actual cost = $50,000, Plan cost = $45,000, Earned value = $40,000. What is the cost performance index?
A. 0.8
B. 0.89
C. 1.13
D. 1.25
Correct Answer: A Section: Volume E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
CPI = EV / AC
QUESTION 610
Which technique is utilized in the Control Schedule process?
A. Performance measure
B. Baseline schedule
C. Schedule network analysis
D. Variance analysis
Correct Answer: D Section: Volume E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 611
What happens to a stakeholder’s project influence over time?
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Stays the same
D. Has no bearing
Correct Answer: B Section: Volume E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 612
Which is one of the determining factors used to calculate CPI?
A. EV
B. SPI
C. PV
D. ETC
Correct Answer: A Section: Volume E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
CPI = EV / AC
QUESTION 613
Which process requires implementation of approved changes?
A. Direct and Manage Project Execution
B. Monitor and Control Project Work
C. Perform Integrated Change Control
D. Close Project or Phase
Correct Answer: A Section: Volume E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 614
Which quality control technique illustrates the 80/20 principle?
A. Ishikawa diagram
B. Control chart
C. Run chart
D. Pareto chart
Correct Answer: D Section: Volume E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 615
At the end of the project, what will be the value of SV?
A. Positive
B. Zero
C. Negative
D. Greater than one
Correct Answer: B
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Section: Volume E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 616
The process of identifying specific actions to be performed to produce project deliverables is:
A. Define Activities.
B. Create WBS.
C. Define Scope.
D. Develop Schedule.
Correct Answer: A Section: Volume E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 617
What is project management?
A. A logical grouping of project management inputs, outputs, tools, and techniques
B. Applying knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet the project requirements
C. Launching a process that can result in the authorization of a new project
D. A formal, approved document that defines how the project is executed, monitored, and controlled
Correct Answer: B Section: Volume E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
1.3 What is Project Management?
Project management is the application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet the project requirements. Project management is accomplished through the appropriate application and integration of the 47 logically grouped project management processes, which are categorized into fve Process Groups. These five Process Groups are:
Initiating, Planning, Executing,
Monitoring and Controlling, and Closing.
QUESTION 618
Resource calendars are included in the:
A. staffing management plan.
B. work breakdown structure (WBS).
C. project communications plan.
D. project charter.
Correct Answer: A
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Section: Volume E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 619
Expected monetary value (EMV) is computed by which equation?
A. Value of each possible outcome multiplied by probability of occurrence
B. Value of each possible outcome multiplied by probability of non-occurrence
C. Multiplying the value of each possible outcome by the probability of occurrence and adding the products together
D. Multiplying the value of each possible outcome by the probability of non-occurrence and adding the products together
Correct Answer: C Section: Volume E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
EMV = Probability * Impact in currency
Expected Monetary Value (EMV) Analysis. A statistical technique that calculates the average outcome when the future includes scenarios that may or may not happen. A common use of this technique is within decision tree analysis.
QUESTION 620
An input to the Collect Requirements process is the:
A. stakeholder register.
B. project management plan.
C. project scope statement.
D. requirements management plan.
Correct Answer: A Section: Volume E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
5.2.1.5 Stakeholder Register
Described in Section 13.1.3.1. The stakeholder register is used to identify stakeholders who can provide information on the requirements. The stakeholder register also captures major requirements and main expectations stakeholders may have for the project.
13.1.3.1 Stakeholder Register
The main output of the Identify Stakeholders process is the stakeholder register. This contains all details related to the identified stakeholders including, but not limited to:
Identification information. Name, organizational position, location, role in the project, contact information;
Assessment information. Major requirements, main expectations, potential influence in the project, phase in the life cycle with the most interest; and
Stakeholder classification. Internal/external, supporter/neutral/resistor, etc.
The stakeholder register should be consulted and updated on a regular basis, as stakeholders may change— or new ones identified—throughout the life cycle of the project.
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Process: 5.2 Collect Requirements
Definition: The process of determining, documenting, and managing stakeholder needs and requirements to meet project objectives.
Key Benefit: The key benefit of this process is that it provides the basis for defining and managing the project scope including product scope.
Inputs
1. Scope management plan
2. Requirements management plan
3. Stakeholder management plan
4. Project charter
5. Stakeholder register
Tools & Techniques
1. Interviews
2. Focus groups
3. Facilitated workshops
4. Group creativity techniques
5. Group decision-making techniques
6. Questionnaires and surveys
7. Observations
8. Prototypes
9. Benchmarking
10. Context diagrams
11. Document analysis
Outputs
1. Requirements documentation
2. Requirements traceability matrix
QUESTION 621
Projects are separated into phases or subprojects; these phases include:
A. feasibility study, concept development, design, and prototype.
B. initiate, plan, execute, and monitor.
C. Develop Charter, Define Activities, Manage Stakeholder Expectations, and Report Performance.
D. Identify Stakeholders, develop concept, build, and test.
Correct Answer: A Section: Volume E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 622
In which type of contract are the performance targets established at the onset and the final contract price determined after completion of all work based on the sellers performance?
A. Firm-Fixed-Price (FFP)
B. Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustments (FP-EPA)
C. Fixed-Price-Incentive-Fee (FPIF)
D. Cost Plus Fixed Fee (CPFF)
Correct Answer: C Section: Volume E Explanation
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Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 623
Which of the following is an input to the Develop Project Charter process?
A. Work performance information
B. Project management plan
C. Business case
D. Change requests
Correct Answer: C Section: Volume E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Process: 4.1. Develop Project Charter
Definition: The process of developing a document that formally authorizes the existence of a project and provides the project manager with the authority to apply organizational resources to project activities.
Key Benefit: The key benefit of this process is a well-defined project start and project boundaries, creation of a formal record of the project, and a direct way for senior management to formally accept and commit to the project.
Inputs
1. Project statement of work
2. Business case
3. Agreements
4. Enterprise environmental factors
5. Organizational process assets
Tools & Techniques
1. Expert judgment
2. Facilitation techniques
Outputs
1. Project charter
4.1.1.2 Business Case
The business case or similar document describes the necessary information from a business standpoint to determine whether or not the project is worth the required investment. It is commonly used for decision making by managers or executives above the project level. Typically, the business need and the cost-benefit analysis are contained in the business case to justify and establish boundaries for the project, and such analysis is usually completed by a business analyst using various stakeholder inputs. The sponsor should agree to the scope and limitations of the business case. The business case is created as a result of one or more of the following:
Market demand (e.g., a car company authorizing a project to build more fuel-efficient cars in response to gasoline shortages),
Organizational need (e.g., due to high overhead costs a company may combine staff functions and streamline processes to reduce costs.),
Customer request (e.g., an electric utility authorizing a project to build a new substation to serve a new industrial park),
Technological advance (e.g., an airline authorizing a new project to develop electronic tickets instead of paper tickets based on technological advances),
Legal requirement (e.g., a paint manufacturer authorizing a project to establish guidelines for handling toxic materials),
Ecological impacts (e.g., a company authorizing a project to lessen its environmental impact), or
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Social need (e.g., a nongovernmental organization in a developing country authorizing a project to provide potable water systems, latrines, and sanitation education to communities suffering from high rates of cholera).
Each of the examples in this list may contain elements of risk that should be addressed. In the case of multiphase projects, the business case may be periodically reviewed to ensure that the project is on track to deliver the business benefits. In the early stages of the project life cycle, periodic review of the business case by the sponsoring organization also helps to confirm that the project is still aligned with the business case. The project manager is responsible for ensuring that the project effectively and efficiently meets the goals of the organization and those requirements of a broad set of stakeholders, as defined in the business case.
QUESTION 624
The diagram below is an example of a:
A. Risk breakdown structure (RBS).
B. Project team.
C. SWOT Analysis.
D. Work breakdown structure (WBS).
Correct Answer: A Section: Volume E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 625
Who is responsible for initiating a project?
A. Project sponsor
B. Project manager
C. Program manager
D. Project management office (PMO)
Correct Answer: A Section: Volume E Explanation
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Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 626
Which type of diagram includes groups of information and shows relationships between factors, causes, and objectives?
A. Affinity
B. Scatter
C. Fishbone
D. Matrix
Correct Answer: D Section: Volume E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Matrix diagrams. A quality management and control tool used to perform data analysis within the organizational structure created in the matrix. The matrix diagram seeks to show the strength of relationships between factors, causes, and objectives that exist between the rows and columns that form the matrix.
QUESTION 627
Activity cost estimates are quantitative assessments of the probable costs required to:
A. Create WBS.
B. complete project work.
C. calculate costs.
D. Develop Project Management Plan.
Correct Answer: B Section: Volume E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
7.2.3.1 Activity Cost Estimates
Activity cost estimates are quantitative assessments of the probable costs required to complete project work. Cost estimates can be presented in summary form or in detail. Costs are estimated for all resources that are applied to the activity cost estimate. This includes, but is not limited to, direct labor, materials, equipment, services, facilities, information technology, and special categories such as cost of financing (including interest charges), an inflation allowance, exchange rates, or a cost contingency reserve. Indirect costs, if they are included in the project estimate, can be included at the activity level or at higher levels.
QUESTION 628
The item that provides more detailed descriptions of the components in the work breakdown structure (WB5) is called a WBS:
A. dictionary.
B. chart.
C. report.
D. register.
Correct Answer: A
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Section: Volume E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
• WBS dictionary. The WBS dictionary is a document that provides detailed deliverable, activity, and scheduling information about each component in the WBS. The WBS dictionary is a document that supports the WBS. Information in the WBS dictionary may include, but is not limited to:
Code of account identifier, Description of work, Assumptions and constraints, Responsible organization, Schedule milestones, Associated schedule activities, Resources required,
Cost estimates, Quality requirements, Acceptance criteria,
Technical references, and Agreement information.
QUESTION 629
How should a stakeholder who is classified as high power and low interest be grouped in a power/interest grid during stakeholder analysis?
A. Keep satisfied
B. Keep informed
C. Manage closely
D. Monitor
Correct Answer: A Section: Volume E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
13.1.2.1 Stakeholder Analysis
Stakeholder analysis is a technique of systematically gathering and analyzing quantitative and qualitative information to determine whose interests should be taken into account throughout the project. It identifies the interests, expectations, and influence of the stakeholders and relates them to the purpose of the project. It also helps to identify stakeholder relationships (with the project and with other stakeholders) that can be leveraged to build coalitions and potential partnerships to enhance the project’s chance of success, along with stakeholder relationships that need to be influenced differently at different stages of the project or phase.
Stakeholder analysis generally follows the steps described below:
Identify all potential project stakeholders and relevant information, such as their roles, departments, interests, knowledge, expectations, and influence levels. Key stakeholders are usually easy to identify. They include anyone in a decision-making or management role who is impacted by the project outcome, such as the sponsor, the project manager, and the primary customer. Identifying other stakeholders is usually done by interviewing identified stakeholders and expanding the list until all potential stakeholders are included.
Analyze the potential impact or support each stakeholder could generate, and classify them so as to define an approach strategy. In large stakeholder communities, it is important to prioritize the stakeholders to ensure the efficient use of effort to communicate and manage their expectations.
Assess how key stakeholders are likely to react or respond in various situations, in order to plan how to influence them to enhance their support and mitigate potential negative impacts.
There are multiple classification models used for stakeholders analysis, such as:
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Power/interest grid, grouping the stakeholders based on their level of authority (“power”) and their level or concern (“interest”) regarding the project outcomes;
Power/influence grid, grouping the stakeholders based on their level of authority (“power”) and their active involvement (“influence”) in the project;
Influence/impact grid, grouping the stakeholders based on their active involvement (“influence”) in the project and their ability to effect changes to the project’s planning or execution (“impact”); and
Salience model, describing classes of stakeholders based on their power (ability to impose their will), urgency (need for immediate attention), and legitimacy (their involvement is appropriate).
QUESTION 630
The project has a current cost performance index of 0.80. Assuming this performance will continue, the new estimate at completion is $1000. What was the original budget at completion for the project?
A. $800
B. $1000
C. $1250
D. $1800
Correct Answer: A Section: Volume E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 631
Who determines which dependencies are mandatory during the Sequence Activities process?
A. Project manager
B. External stakeholders
C. Internal stakeholders
D. Project team
Correct Answer: D Section: Volume E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Who determines which dependencies are mandatory during the Sequence Activities process?
QUESTION 632
Risk exists the moment that a project is:
A. planned.
B. conceived.
C. chartered.
D. executed.
Correct Answer: B Section: Volume E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 633
Which type of contract is a hybrid of both a cost-reimbursable and a fixed-price contract?
A. Cost Plus Award Fee Contract (CPAF)
B. Firm-Fixed -Price Contract (FFP)
C. Time and Material Contract (T&M)
D. Cost Plus Incentive Fee Contract (CPIF)
Correct Answer: C Section: Volume E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Time and Material Contracts (T&M). Time and material contracts are a hybrid type of contractual arrangement that contain aspects of both cost-reimbursable and fixed-price contracts. They are often used for staff augmentation, acquisition of experts, and any outside support when a precise statement of work cannot be quickly prescribed. These types of contracts resemble cost-reimbursable contracts in that they can be left open ended and may be subject to a cost increase for the buyer. The full value of the agreement and the exact quantity of items to be delivered may not be defined by the buyer at the time of the contract award. Thus, T&M contracts can increase in contract value as if they were costreimbursable contracts. Many organizations require not-to-exceed values and time limits placed in all T&M contracts to prevent unlimited cost growth. Conversely, T&M contracts can also resemble fixed unit price arrangements when certain parameters are specified in the contract. Unit labor or material rates can be preset by the buyer and seller, including seller profit, when both parties agree on the values for specific resource categories, such as senior engineers at specified rates per hour, or categories of materials at specified rates per unit.
QUESTION 634
Which characteristics do effective project managers possess?
A. Project management knowledge, performance skills, and personal effectiveness
B. Preparedness, project management knowledge, and personality characteristics
C. General management, preparedness, and project management knowledge
D. Assertiveness, collaboration, and performance skills
Correct Answer: A Section: Volume E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
1.7.1 Responsibilities and Competencies of the Project Manager
In general, project managers have the responsibility to satisfy the needs: task needs, team needs, and individual needs. As project management is a critical strategic discipline, the project manager becomes the link between the strategy and the team. Projects are essential to the growth and survival of organizations. Projects create value in the form of improved business processes, are indispensable in the development of new products and services, and make it easier for companies to respond to changes in the environment, competition, and the marketplace. The project manager’s role therefore becomes increasingly strategic.
However, understanding and applying the knowledge, tools, and techniques that are recognized as good practice are not sufficient for effective project management. In addition to any area-specific skills and general management proficiencies required for the project, effective project management requires that the project manager possess the following competencies:
Knowledge—Refers to what the project manager knows about project management.
Performance—Refers to what the project manager is able to do or accomplish while applying his or her project management knowledge.
Personal—Refers to how the project manager behaves when performing the project or related activity.
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Personal effectiveness encompasses attitudes, core personality characteristics, and leadership, which provides the ability to guide the project team while achieving project objectives and balancing the project constraints.
QUESTION 635
In the basic communication model, which term refers to the method that is used to convey the message?
A. Decode
B. Encode
C. Medium
D. Noise
Correct Answer: C Section: Volume E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 636
During project selection, which factor is most important?
A. Types of constraints
B. Internal business needs
C. Budget
D. Schedule
Correct Answer: B Section: Volume E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Projects are initiated by an entity external to the project such as a sponsor, program or project management offce (PMO) staff person, or a portfolio governing body chairperson or authorized representative. The project initiator or sponsor should be at the level that is appropriate to procure funding and commit resources to the project. Projects are initiated due to internal business needs or external influences. These needs or influences often trigger the creation of a needs analysis, feasibility study, business case, or description of the situation that the project will address. Chartering a project validates alignment of the project to the strategy and ongoing work of the organization. A project charter is not considered to be a contract, because there is no consideration or money promised or exchanged in its creation.
QUESTION 637
The staffing management plan is part of the:
A. organizational process assets.
B. resource calendar.
C. human resource plan.
D. Develop Project Team process.
Correct Answer: C Section: Volume E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 638
Which is an output of the Collect Requirements process?
A. Requirements traceability matrix
B. Project scope statement
C. WBS dictionary
D. Work performance measurements
Correct Answer: A Section: Volume E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
5.2.3.2 Requirements Traceability Matrix
The requirements traceability matrix is a grid that links product requirements from their origin to the deliverables that satisfy them. The implementation of a requirements traceability matrix helps ensure that each requirement adds business value by linking it to the business and project objectives. It provides a means to track requirements throughout the project life cycle, helping to ensure that requirements approved in the requirements documentation are delivered at the end of the project. Finally, it provides a structure for managing changes to the product scope.
Tracing includes, but is not limited to, tracing requirements for the following:
Business needs, opportunities, goals, and objectives; Project objectives;
Project scope/WBS deliverables; Product design;
Product development;
Test strategy and test scenarios; and
High-level requirements to more detailed requirements.
Attributes associated with each requirement can be recorded in the requirements traceability matrix. These attributes help to define key information about the requirement. Typical attributes used in the requirements traceability matrix may include: a unique identifier, a textual description of the requirement, the rationale for inclusion, owner, source, priority, version, current status (such as active, cancelled, deferred, added, approved, assigned, completed), and status date. Additional attributes to ensure that the requirement has met stakeholders’ satisfaction may include stability, complexity, and acceptance criteria.
Process: 5.2 Collect Requirements
Definition: The process of determining, documenting, and managing stakeholder needs and requirements to meet project objectives.
Key Benefit: The key benefit of this process is that it provides the basis for defining and managing the project scope including product scope.
Inputs
1. Scope management plan
2. Requirements management plan
3. Stakeholder management plan
4. Project charter
5. Stakeholder register
Tools & Techniques
1. Interviews
2. Focus groups
3. Facilitated workshops
4. Group creativity techniques
5. Group decision-making techniques
6. Questionnaires and surveys
7. Observations
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8. Prototypes
9. Benchmarking
10. Context diagrams
11. Document analysis
Outputs
1. Requirements documentation
2. Requirements traceability matrix
QUESTION 639
Which activity may occur at project or phase closure?
A. Acceptance of deliverables
B. Change requests
C. Project management plan updates
D. Benchmarking
Correct Answer: A Section: Volume E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 640
Which of the following is an input to Direct and Manage Project Execution?
A. Performance reports
B. Project charter
C. Outputs from planning processes
D. Enterprise environmental factors
Correct Answer: D Section: Volume E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 641
Using the three-point estimating technique, if the most likely duration is four months, the optimistic duration is two months, and the pessimistic duration is one year, how many months is the expected activity duration?
A. Two
B. Four
C. Five
D. Twelve
Correct Answer: C Section: Volume E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
6.5.2.4 Three-Point Estimating
The accuracy of single-point activity duration estimates may be improved by considering estimation uncertainty
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and risk. This concept originated with the program evaluation and review technique (PERT). PERT uses three estimates to define an approximate range for an activity’s duration:
Most likely (tM). This estimate is based on the duration of the activity, given the resources likely to be assigned, their productivity, realistic expectations of availability for the activity, dependencies on other participants, and interruptions.
Optimistic (tO). The activity duration based on analysis of the best-case scenario for the activity.
Pessimistic (tP). The activity duration based on analysis of the worst-case scenario for the activity.
Depending on the assumed distribution of values within the range of the three estimates the expected duration, tE, can be calculated using a formula. Two commonly used formulas are triangular and beta distributions. The formulas are:
Triangular Distribution. tE = (tO + tM + tP) / 3
Beta Distribution (from the traditional PERT technique). tE = (tO + 4tM + tP) / 6
Duration estimates based on three points with an assumed distribution provide an expected duration and clarify the range of uncertainty around the expected duration.
E = (a + 4m + b) / 6
(2+ (4*4) +12)=30 /6 =5
QUESTION 642
A project lifecycle is defined as:
A. a collection of generally sequential and sometimes overlapping project phases.
B. a process required to ensure that the project includes all the work required, and only the work required, to complete the project successfully.
C. a recognized standard for the project management profession.
D. the application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet the project requirements.
Correct Answer: A Section: Volume E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
2.4 Project Life Cycle
A project life cycle is the series of phases that a project passes through from its initiation to its closure. The phases are generally sequential, and their names and numbers are determined by the management and control needs of the organization or organizations involved in the project, the nature of the project itself, and its area of application. The phases can be broken down by functional or partial objectives, intermediate results or deliverables, specific milestones within the overall scope of work, or financial availability. Phases are generally time bounded, with a start and ending or control point. A life cycle can be documented within a methodology. The project life cycle can be determined or shaped by the unique aspects of the organization, industry, or technology employed.
While every project has a definite start and a definite end, the specific deliverables and activities that take place in between will vary widely with the project. The life cycle provides the basic framework for managing the project, regardless of the specific work involved.
QUESTION 643
Administer Procurements is part of which Process Group?
A. Planning
B. Executing
C. Monitoring and Controlling
D. Closing
Correct Answer: C
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Section: Volume E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 644
The process to ensure that appropriate quality standards and operational definitions are used is:
A. Plan Quality.
B. Perform Quality Assurance.
C. Perform Quality Control.
D. Total Quality Management.
Correct Answer: B Section: Volume E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Process: 8.2 Perform Quality Assurance
Definition: The process of auditing the quality requirements and the results from quality control measurements to ensure that appropriate quality standards and operational definitions are used. Key Benefit: The key benefit of this process is that it facilitates the improvement of quality processes.
Inputs
1. Quality management plan
2. Process improvement plan
3. Quality metrics
4. Quality control measurements
5. Project documents
Tools & Techniques
1. Quality management and control tools
2. Quality audits
3. Process analysis
Outputs
1. Change requests
2. Project management plan updates
3. Project documents updates
4. Organizational process assets updates
QUESTION 645
Which Process Group contains the processes performed to complete the work defined in the project management plan to satisfy the project specifications?
A. Initiating
B. Planning
C. Executing
D. Closing
Correct Answer: C Section: Volume E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 646
A project manager at a publishing company decides to initiate the editing phase of the project as soon as each chapter is written. Which type of Sequence Activities tool and technique is involved, considering that there was a start-to-start relationship with a 15-day delay?
A. Slack
B. Float
C. Lag
D. Lead
Correct Answer: C Section: Volume E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A lag is the amount of time whereby a successor activity will be delayed with respect to a predecessor activity. For example, a technical writing team may begin editing the draft of a large document 15 days after they begin writing it.
Process: 6.3 Sequence Activities
Definition: The process of identifying and documenting relationships among the project activities.
Key Benefit: The key benefit of this process is that it defines the logical sequence of work to obtain the greatest efficiency given all project constraints.
Inputs
1. Schedule management plan
2. Activity list
3. Activity attributes
4. Milestone list
5. Project scope statement
6. Enterprise environmental factors
7. Organizational process assets
Tools & Techniques
1. Precedence diagramming method (PDM)
2. Dependency determination
3. Leads and lags
Outputs
1. Project schedule network diagrams
2. Project documents updates
QUESTION 647
The completion of the project scope is measured against the:
A. requirements documentation.
B. project scope statement.
C. project management plan.
D. work performance measurements.
Correct Answer: C Section: Volume E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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Explanation:
4.2.3.1 Project Management Plan
The project management plan is the document that describes how the project will be executed, monitored, and controlled. It integrates and consolidates all of the subsidiary plans and baselines from the planning processes. Project baselines include, but are not limited to:
Scope baseline (Section 5.4.3.1), Schedule baseline (Section 6.6.3.1), and Cost baseline (Section 7.3.3.1).
Subsidiary plans include, but are not limited to:
Scope management plan (Section 5.1.3.1), Requirements management plan (Section 5.1.3.2), Schedule management plan (Section 6.1.3.1), Cost management plan (Section 7.1.3.1),
Quality management plan (Section 8.1.3.1), Process improvement plan (Section 8.1.3.2),
Human resource management plan (Section 9.1.3.1), Communications management plan (Section 10.1.3.1), Risk management plan (Section 11.1.3.1), Procurement management plan (Section 12.1.3.1), and Stakeholder management plan (Section 13.2.3.1).
Among other things, the project management plan may also include the following:
Life cycle selected for the project and the processes that will be applied to each phase; Details of the tailoring decisions specified by the project management team as follows:
○ Project management processes selected by the project management team,
○ Level of implementation for each selected process,
○ Descriptions of the tools and techniques to be used for accomplishing those processes, and
○ Description of how the selected processes will be used to manage the specific project, including the dependencies and interactions among those processes and the essential inputs and outputs.
Description of how work will be executed to accomplish the project objectives;
Change management plan that documents how changes will be monitored and controlled; Configuration management plan that documents how Configuration management will be performed; Description of how the integrity of the project baselines will be maintained;
Requirements and techniques for communication among stakeholders; and
Key management reviews for content, the extent of, and timing to address, open issues and pending decisions.
The project management plan may be either summary level or detailed, and may be composed of one or more subsidiary plans. Each of the subsidiary plans is detailed to the extent required by the specific project. Once the project management plan is baselined, it may only be changed when a change request is generated and approved through the Perform Integrated Change Control process.
QUESTION 648
The processes required to establish the scope of the project, refine the objectives, and define the course of action required to attain the objectives that the project has been undertaken to achieve are grouped within which Process Group?
A. Initiating
B. Planning
C. Executing
D. Monitoring and Controlling
Correct Answer: B Section: Volume E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 649
Which input will be used when tasked with developing the human resource plan?
A. Project management plan
B. Activity resource requirements
C. Resource calendar
D. Project staff assignments
Correct Answer: B Section: Volume E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
9.1.1.2 Activity Resource Requirements
Described in Section 6.4.3.1. Human resource planning uses activity resource requirements to determine the human resource needs for the project. The preliminary requirements regarding the required project team members and their competencies are progressively elaborated as part of the Plan Human Resource Management process.
6.4.3.1 Activity Resource Requirements
Activity resource requirements identify the types and quantities of resources required for each activity in a work package. These requirements then can be aggregated to determine the estimated resources for each work package and each work period. The amount of detail and the level of specificity of the resource requirement descriptions can vary by application area. The resource requirements documentation for each activity can include the basis of estimate for each resource, as well as the assumptions that were made in determining which types of resources are applied, their availability, and what quantities are used.
Process: 9.1 Plan Human Resource Management
Definition: The process of identifying and documenting project roles, responsibilities, required skills, reporting relationships, and creating a staffing management plan.
Key Benefit: The key benefit of this process is that it establishes project roles and responsibilities, project organization charts, and the staffing management plan including the timetable for staff acquisition and release. Inputs
1. Project management plan
2. Activity resource requirements
3. Enterprise environmental factors
4. Organizational process assets
Tools & Techniques
1. Organization charts and position descriptions
2. Networking
3. Organizational theory
4. Expert judgment
5. Meetings
Outputs
1. Human resource management plan
QUESTION 650
Which of the following are an enterprise environmental factor that can influence the Identify Risks process?
A. Work performance reports
B. Assumptions logs
C. Network diagrams
D. Academic studies
Correct Answer: D
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Section: Volume E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
11.2.1.12 Enterprise Environmental Factors
Described in Section 2.1.5. Enterprise environmental factors that can influence the Identify Risks process include, but are not limited to:
Published information, including commercial databases,
Academic studies, Published checklists, Benchmarking, Industry studies, and Risk attitudes.
Process: 11.2 Identify Risks
Definition: The process of determining which risks may affect the project and documenting their characteristics.
Key Benefit: The key benefit of this process is the documentation of existing risks and the knowledge and ability it provides to the project team to anticipate events.
Inputs
1. Risk management plan
2. Cost management plan
3. Schedule management plan
4. Quality management plan
5. Human resource management plan
6. Scope baseline
7. Activity cost estimates
8. Activity duration estimates
9. Stakeholder register
10. Project documents
11. Procurement documents
12. Enterprise environmental factors
13. Organizational process assets
Tools & Techniques
1. Documentation reviews
2. Information gathering techniques
3. Checklist analysis
4. Assumptions analysis
5. Diagramming techniques
6. SWOT analysis Expert judgment
Outputs
Risk register
Related posts:
Creating Activity Lists For Projects: How To Analyse Project Tasks
Technical Feasibility For Projects: How To handle Project Technicalities
8 Ways Of Gathering Stakeholder Requirements (+Examples)
Project Prototyping Models: The Various Types (+Examples)
Project Schedule Network Diagram: Amazing Tool For Keeping Track Of Multiple Projects.
Work Breakdown Structure For Projects: Ways Of Managing Projects Successfully
Outputs Of Project Life Cycle: The Major Outputs
4 Types Of Precedence Relationships For Projects (+Examples)
Customer Requirements For Projects: Understanding Customers Communication (+Examples)
Use Of Expert Judgement For Projects: An Analysis (+Examples)
6 Terms Relating To Schedule Management For Projects (+Examples)
Series 11: Latest CAPM Questions And Answers
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