Series 11: Latest CAPM Questions And Answers

Series 11: Latest CAPM Questions And Answers

QUESTION 501
Which of the following characteristics are found in a functional organizational structure?

A. Little or no project manager authority, little or no resource availability, and the functional manager controls the project budget
B. Limited project manager authority, limited resource availability, and a part-time project manager’s role
C. Low to moderate project manager authority, low to moderate resource availability, and a full-time project manager’s role
D. High to almost total project manager authority, high to almost total resource availability, and full-time project management administrative staff

Correct Answer: A 

Explanation/Reference:

 

QUESTION 502
The project manager at an organization has just realized that some of the engineering staff has been allocated to project Y and will not be available to finish task X. The project manager has also discovered that at the current pace, it will not be possible to complete the project on time. Due to cost constraints, hiring more work force is not a viable option. Which tools are at the manager’s disposal?

A. Resource leveling and fast tracking
B. Fast tracking and crashing
C. Crashing and applying leads and lags
D. Scheduling tools and applying leads and lags

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
6.6.2.7 Schedule Compression
Schedule compression techniques are used to shorten the schedule duration without reducing the project scope, in order to meet schedule constraints, imposed dates, or other schedule objectives. Schedule compression techniques include, but are not limited to:
Crashing. A technique used to shorten the schedule duration for the least incremental cost by adding resources. Examples of crashing include approving overtime, bringing in additional resources, or paying to expedite delivery to activities on the critical path. Crashing works only for activities on the critical path where
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additional resources will shorten the activity’s duration. Crashing does not always produce a viable alternative and may result in increased risk and/or cost.
Fast tracking. A schedule compression technique in which activities or phases normally done in sequence are performed in parallel for at least a portion of their duration. An example is constructing the foundation for a building before completing all of the architectural drawings. Fast tracking may result in rework and increased risk. Fast tracking only works if activities can be overlapped to shorten the project duration.
QUESTION 503
Which process should be conducted from the project inception through completion?
A. Monitor and Control Project Work
B. Perform Quality Control
C. Perform Integrated Change Control
D. Monitor and Control Risks
Correct Answer: C Section: Volume D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 504
Which piece of information is part of the WBS Dictionary?
A. Responsible organization
B. Change requests
C. Validated deliverables
D. Organizational process assets
Correct Answer: A Section: Volume D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 505
When calculating the cost of quality (COQ) for a product or service, money spent for cost of conformance would include the areas of:
A. training, testing, and warranty work.
B. equipment, rework, and scrap.
C. training, document processes, and inspections.
D. inspections, rework, and warranty work.
Correct Answer: C Section: Volume D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 506
Which of the following is a tool or technique of the Define Activities process?
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A. Rolling wave planning
B. Precedence diagramming method (PDM)
C. Alternatives analysis
D. Parametric estimating
Correct Answer: A Section: Volume D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
6.2.2.2 Rolling Wave Planning
Rolling wave planning is an iterative planning technique in which the work to be accomplished in the near term is planned in detail, while the work in the future is planned at a higher level. It is a form of progressive elaboration.
Therefore, work can exist at various levels of detail depending on where it is in the project life cycle. During early strategic planning, when information is less defined, work packages may be decomposed to the known level of detail. As more is known about the upcoming events in the near term, work packages can be decomposed into activities.
Process: 6.2 Define Activities
Definition: The process of identifying and documenting the specific actions to be performed to produce the project deliverables.
Key Benefit: The key benefit of this process is to break down work packages into activities that provide a basis for estimating, scheduling, executing, monitoring, and controlling the project work.
Inputs
1. Schedule management plan
2. Scope baseline
3. Enterprise environmental factors
4. Organizational process assets
Tools & Techniques
1. Decomposition
2. Rolling wave planning
3. Expert judgment
Outputs
1. Activity list
2. Activity attributes
3. Milestone list
QUESTION 507
Which of the following is a set of interrelated actions and activities performed to achieve a prespecified product, result, or service?
A. Portfolio
B. Process
C. Project
D. Program
Correct Answer: B Section: Volume D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 508
Which degree of authority does a project manager have on a project in a strong matrix organizational structure?
A. Limited
B. Low to moderate
C. Moderate to high
D. High to almost total
Correct Answer: C Section: Volume D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 509
Which of the following is an information gathering technique in Identify Risks?
A. Influence diagrams
B. Brainstorming
C. Assumption analysis
D. SWOT analysis
Correct Answer: B Section: Volume D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 510
Documented identification of a flaw in a project component together with a recommendation is termed a:
A. corrective action.
B. preventive action.
C. non-conformance report,
D. defect repair.
Correct Answer: D Section: Volume D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 511
Which of the following is developed from the project scope baseline and defines only that portion of the project scope that is to be included within a related contract?
A. Product scope description
B. Procurement statement of work
C. Project schedule
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D. Work breakdown structure (WBS)
Correct Answer: B Section: Volume D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
12.1.3.2 Procurement Statement of Work
The statement of work (SOW) for each procurement is developed from the project scope baseline and defines only that portion of the project scope that is to be included within the related contract. The procurement SOW describes the procurement item in sufficient detail to allow prospective sellers to determine if they are capable of providing the products, services, or results. sufficient detail can vary based on the nature of the item, the needs of the buyer, or the expected contract form. Information included in a SOW can include specifications, quantity desired, quality levels, performance data, period of performance, work location, and other requirements.
The procurement SOW is written to be clear, complete, and concise. It includes a description of any collateral services required, such as performance reporting or post-project operational support for the procured item. In some application areas, there are specific content and format requirements for a procurement SOW. Each individual procurement item requires a SOW; however, multiple products or services can be grouped as one procurement item within a single SOW.
The procurement SOW can be revised and refined as required as it moves through the procurement process until incorporated into a signed agreement.
QUESTION 512
Which of the following strategic considerations often results in project authorization?
A. Customer requests and/or issue resolution
B. Stakeholder expectations and/or strategic opportunity (business need)
C. Technological advancement and/or senior executive request
D. Market demand and/or legal requirements
Correct Answer: D Section: Volume D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 513
In which Process Group are lessons learned documented?
A. Planning
B. Closing
C. Executing
D. Initiating
Correct Answer: B Section: Volume D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 514
Tools and techniques used for Plan Communications include the communication:
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A. requirements analysis, communication technology, communication models, and communication methods.
B. methods, stakeholder register, communication technology, and communication models.
C. requirements, communication technology, communication requirements analysis, and communication methods.
D. management plan, communication technology, communication models, and communication requirements analysis.
Correct Answer: A Section: Volume D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 515
In Project Cost Management, which input is exclusive to the Determine Budget process?
A. Scope baseline
B. Organizational process assets
C. Project schedule
D. Resource calendars
Correct Answer: D Section: Volume D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
7.3.1.6 Resource Calendars
Described in Sections 9.2.3.2 and 12.2.3.3. Resource calendars provide information on which resources are assigned to the project and when they are assigned. This information can be used to indicate resource costs over the duration of the project.
9.2.3.2 Resource Calendars
Resource calendars document the time periods that each project team member is available to work on the project.
Creating a reliable schedule (Section 6.6.3.1) depends on having a good understanding of each person’s availability and schedule constraints, including time zones, work hours, vacation time, local holidays, and commitments to other projects.
12.2.3.3 Resource Calendars
The quantity and availability of contracted resources and those dates on which each specific resource or resource group can be active or idle are documented.
Process: 7.3 Determine Budget
Definition: The process of aggregating the estimated costs of individual activities or work packages to establish an authorized cost baseline.
Key Benefit: The key benefit of this process is that it determines the cost baseline against which project performance can be monitored and controlled.
Inputs
1. Cost management plan
2. Scope baseline
3. Activity cost estimates
4. Basis of estimates
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5. Project schedule
6. Resource calendars
7. Risk register
8. Agreements
9. Organizational process assets
Tools & Techniques
1. Cost aggregation
2. Reserve analysis
3. Expert judgment
4. Historical relationships
5. Funding limit reconciliation
Outputs
1. Cost baseline
2. Project funding requirements
3. Project documents updates
QUESTION 516
Which of the following is a conflict resolution technique that emphasizes areas of agreement rather than areas of difference?
A. Compromising
B. Collaborating
C. Smoothing
D. Problem Solving
Correct Answer: C Section: Volume D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
There are five general techniques for resolving conflict. As each one has its place and use, these are not given in any particular order:
Withdraw/Avoid. Retreating from an actual or potential conflict situation; postponing the issue to be better prepared or to be resolved by others.
Smooth/Accommodate. Emphasizing areas of agreement rather than areas of difference; conceding one’s position to the needs of others to maintain harmony and relationships.
Compromise/Reconcile. Searching for solutions that bring some degree of satisfaction to all parties in order to temporarily or partially resolve the conflict.
Force/Direct. Pushing one’s viewpoint at the expense of others; offering only win-lose solutions, usually enforced through a power position to resolve an emergency.
Collaborate/Problem Solve. Incorporating multiple viewpoints and insights from differing perspectives; requires a cooperative attitude and open dialogue that typically leads to consensus and commitment.
QUESTION 517
A tool or technique in Perform Quality Control that a project manager would use is:
A. quality audits.
B. process analysis.
C. benchmarking.
D. inspection.
Correct Answer: D Section: Volume D Explanation
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Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 518
The precedence diagramming method (PDM) is also known as:
A. Arrow Diagram.
B. Critical Path Methodology (CPM).
C. Activity-On-Node (AON).
D. schedule network diagram.
Correct Answer: C Section: Volume D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 519
Change request status updates are an output of which process?
A. Perform Integrated Change Control
B. Direct and Manage Project Execution
C. Close Project or Phase
D. Monitor and Control Project Work
Correct Answer: A Section: Volume D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 520
As the project progresses, which of the following is routinely collected from the project activities?
A. Communication management activities
B. Change requests
C. Configuration verification and audit
D. Work performance information
Correct Answer: D Section: Volume D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 521
Which Process Group contains those processes performed to define a new project?
A. Initiating
B. Planning
C. Executing
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D. Closing
Correct Answer: A Section: Volume D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 522
The risk management team of a software project has decided that due to the lack of adequate talent in the company, development of a specific part of the system is under high risk, so the team has decided to outsource it. This is an example of which risk response?
A. Transfer
B. Share
C. Avoid
D. Accept
Correct Answer: A Section: Volume D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
11.5.2.1 Strategies for Negative Risks or Threats
Three strategies, which typically deal with threats or risks that may have negative impacts on project objectives if they occur, are: avoid, transfer, and mitigate. The fourth strategy, accept, can be used for negative risks or threats as well as positive risks or opportunities. Each of these risk response strategies have varied and unique influence on the risk condition. These strategies should be chosen to match the risk’s probability and impact on the project’s overall objectives. Avoidance and mitigation strategies are usually good strategies for critical risks with high impact, while transference and acceptance are usually good strategies for threats that are less critical and with low overall impact. The four strategies for dealing with negative risks or threats are further described as follows:
Avoid. Risk avoidance is a risk response strategy whereby the project team acts to eliminate the threat or protect the project from its impact. It usually involves changing the project management plan to eliminate the threat entirely. The project manager may also isolate the project objectives from the risk’s impact or change the objective that is in jeopardy. Examples of this include extending the schedule, changing the strategy, or reducing scope. The most radical avoidance strategy is to shut down the project entirely. Some risks that arise early in the project can be avoided by clarifying requirements, obtaining information, improving communication, or acquiring expertise.
Transfer. Risk transference is a risk response strategy whereby the project team shifts the impact of a threat to a third party, together with ownership of the response. Transferring the risk simply gives another party responsibility for its management—it does not eliminate it. Transferring does not mean disowning the risk by transferring it to a later project or another person without his or her knowledge or agreement. Risk transference nearly always involves payment of a risk premium to the party taking on the risk. Transferring liability for risk is most effective in dealing with financial risk exposure. Transference tools can be quite diverse and include, but are not limited to, the use of insurance, performance bonds, warranties, guarantees, etc. Contracts or agreements may be used to transfer liability for specified risks to another party. For example, when a buyer has capabilities that the seller does not possess, it may be prudent to transfer some work and its concurrent risk contractually back to the buyer. In many cases, use of a cost-plus contract may transfer the cost risk to the buyer, while a fixed-price contract may transfer risk to the seller.
Mitigate. Risk mitigation is a risk response strategy whereby the project team acts to reduce the probability of occurrence or impact of a risk. It implies a reduction in the probability and/or impact of an adverse risk to be within acceptable threshold limits. Taking early action to reduce the probability and/or impact of a risk occurring on the project is often more effective than trying to repair the damage after the risk has occurred.
Adopting less complex processes, conducting more tests, or choosing a more stable supplier are examples of
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mitigation actions. Mitigation may require prototype development to reduce the risk of scaling up from a bench- scale model of a process or product. Where it is not possible to reduce probability, a mitigation response might address the risk impact by targeting linkages that determine the severity. For example, designing redundancy into a system may reduce the impact from a failure of the original component.
Accept. Risk acceptance is a risk response strategy whereby the project team decides to acknowledge the risk and not take any action unless the risk occurs. This strategy is adopted where it is not possible or cost- effective to address a specific risk in any other way. This strategy indicates that the project team has decided not to change the project management plan to deal with a risk, or is unable to identify any other suitable response strategy. This strategy can be either passive or active. Passive acceptance requires no action except to document the strategy, leaving the project team to deal with the risks as they occur, and to periodically review the threat to ensure that it does not change significantly. The most common active acceptance strategy is to establish a contingency reserve, including amounts of time, money, or resources to handle the risks.
QUESTION 523
Which type of agreement is legal, contractual, and between two or more entities to form a partnership, joint venture, or some other arrangement as defined by the parties?
A. Teaming
B. Collective bargaining
C. Sharing
D. Working
Correct Answer: A Section: Volume D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 524
The process of aggregating the estimated costs of individual activities or work packages to establish an authorized cost baseline is:
A. Determine Budget.
B. Baseline Budget.
C. Control Costs.
D. Estimate Costs.
Correct Answer: A Section: Volume D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
7.3.3.1 Cost Baseline
The cost baseline is the approved version of the time-phased project budget, excluding any management reserves, which can only be changed through formal change control procedures and is used as a basis for comparison to actual results. It is developed as a summation of the approved budgets for the different schedule activities.
Process: 7.3 Determine Budget
Definition: The process of aggregating the estimated costs of individual activities or work packages to establish an authorized cost baseline.
Key Benefit: The key benefit of this process is that it determines the cost baseline against which project performance can be monitored and controlled.
Inputs
1. Cost management plan
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2. Scope baseline
3. Activity cost estimates
4. Basis of estimates
5. Project schedule
6. Resource calendars
7. Risk register
8. Agreements
9. Organizational process assets
Tools & Techniques
1. Cost aggregation
2. Reserve analysis
3. Expert judgment
4. Historical relationships
5. Funding limit reconciliation
Outputs
1. Cost baseline
2. Project funding requirements
3. Project documents updates
QUESTION 525
To please the customer, a project team member delivers a requirement which is uncontrolled. This is not part of the plan. This describes:
A. scope creep.
B. a change request.
C. work performance information.
D. deliverables.
Correct Answer: A Section: Volume D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 526
The definition of operations is a/an:
A. organizational function performing the temporary execution of activities that produce the same product or provide repetitive service.
B. temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result.
C. organization that provides oversight for an administrative area.
D. organizational function performing the ongoing execution of activities that produce the same product or provide repetitive service.
Correct Answer: D Section: Volume D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 527
How many Project Management Process Groups are there?
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A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
Correct Answer: C Section: Volume D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
1. Initiating Process Group
2. Planning Process Group
3. Executing Process Group
4. Monitoring and Controlling Process Group
5. Closing Process Group
QUESTION 528
Which type of estimating is used to improve the accuracy of an activity’s duration?
A. Analogous
B. Parametric
C. Three-point
D. What-if scenario analysis
Correct Answer: C Section: Volume D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
6.5.2.4 Three-Point Estimating
The accuracy of single-point activity duration estimates may be improved by considering estimation uncertainty and risk. This concept originated with the program evaluation and review technique (PERT).
PERT uses three estimates to define an approximate range for an activity’s duration:
Most likely (tM). This estimate is based on the duration of the activity, given the resources likely to be assigned, their productivity, realistic expectations of availability for the activity, dependencies on other participants, and interruptions.
Optimistic (tO). The activity duration based on analysis of the best-case scenario for the activity.
Pessimistic (tP). The activity duration based on analysis of the worst-case scenario for the activity. Depending on the assumed distribution of values within the range of the three estimates the expected duration, tE, can be calculated using a formula. Two commonly used formulas are triangular and beta distributions.
The formulas are:
Triangular Distribution. tE = (tO + tM + tP) / 3
Beta Distribution (from the traditional PERT technique). tE = (tO + 4tM + tP) / 6
Duration estimates based on three points with an assumed distribution provide an expected duration and clarify the range of uncertainty around the expected duration.
QUESTION 529
The Project Management Process Group in which performance is observed and measured regularly from project initiation through completion is:
A. Executing.
B. Initiating,
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C. Monitoring and Controlling.
D. Planning.
Correct Answer: C Section: Volume D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 530
Which of the following are outputs of Develop Project Team?
A. Human resources plan changes and project staff assignment updates
B. Project management plan updates and enterprise environmental factor updates
C. Resource calendars and project management plan updates
D. Team performance assessments and enterprise environmental factor updates
Correct Answer: D Section: Volume D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Process: 9.3 Develop Project Team
Definition: The process of improving competencies, team member interaction, and overall team environment to enhance project performance.
Key Benefit: The key benefit of this process is that it results in improved teamwork, enhanced people skills and competencies, motivated employees, reduced staff turnover rates, and improved overall project performance.
Inputs
1. Human resource management plan
2. Project staff assignments
3. Resource calendars
Tools & Techniques
1. Interpersonal skills
2. Training
3. Team-building activities
4. Ground rules
5. Colocation
6. Recognition and rewards
7. Personnel assessment tools
Outputs
1. Team performance assessments
2. Enterprise environmental factors updates
QUESTION 531
Which tool or technique is used in Manage Stakeholder Expectations?
A. Stakeholder management strategy
B. Communication methods
C. Issue log
D. Change requests
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Correct Answer: B Section: Volume D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 532
Which of the following is a tool and technique used in the Develop Schedule process?
A. Three-point estimates
B. Resource leveling
C. Precedence diagramming method
D. Bottom-up estimating
Correct Answer: B Section: Volume D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Process: 6.6 Develop Schedule
Definition: The process of analyzing activity sequences, durations, resource requirements, and schedule constraints to create the project schedule model.
Key Benefit: The key benefit of this process is that by entering schedule activities, durations, resources, resource availabilities, and logical relationships into the scheduling tool, it generates a schedule model with planned dates for completing project activities.
Inputs
1. Schedule management plan
2. Activity list
3. Activity attributes
4. Project schedule network diagrams
5. Activity resource requirements
6. Resource calendars
7. Activity duration estimates
8. Project scope statement
9. Risk register
10. Project staff assignments
11. Resource breakdown structure
12. Enterprise environmental factors
13. Organizational process assets
Tools & Techniques
1. Schedule network analysis
2. Critical path method
3. Critical chain method
4. Resource optimization techniques
5. Modeling techniques
6. Leads and lags
7. Schedule compression
8. .Scheduling tool
Outputs
1. Schedule baseline
2. .Project schedule
3. Schedule data
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4. Project calendars
5. Project management plan updates
6. Project documents updates
QUESTION 533
The output that defines an approach to increase the support and minimize negative impacts of stakeholders is the:
A. stakeholder management strategy.
B. communications management plan.
C. stakeholder register.
D. performance report.
Correct Answer: A Section: Volume D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 534
Which of the following project documents is an input to the Control Scope process?
A. Vendor risk assessment diagram
B. Risk register
C. Requirements traceability matrix
D. Area of responsibility summary
Correct Answer: C Section: Volume D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
5.2.3.2 Requirements Traceability Matrix
The requirements traceability matrix is a grid that links product requirements from their origin to the deliverables that satisfy them. The implementation of a requirements traceability matrix helps ensure that each requirement adds business value by linking it to the business and project objectives. It provides a means to track requirements throughout the project life cycle, helping to ensure that requirements approved in the requirements documentation are delivered at the end of the project. Finally, it provides a structure for managing changes to the product scope.
Tracing includes, but is not limited to, tracing requirements for the following:
Business needs, opportunities, goals, and objectives; Project objectives;
Project scope/WBS deliverables; Product design;
Product development;
Test strategy and test scenarios; and
High-level requirements to more detailed requirements.
Attributes associated with each requirement can be recorded in the requirements traceability matrix. These attributes help to define key information about the requirement. Typical attributes used in the requirements traceability matrix may include: a unique identifier, a textual description of the requirement, the rationale for inclusion, owner, source, priority, version, current status (such as active, cancelled, deferred, added, approved, assigned, completed), and status date. Additional attributes to ensure that the requirement has met stakeholders’ satisfaction may include stability, complexity, and acceptance criteria.
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Process: 5.6 Control Scope
Definition: The process of monitoring the status of the project and product scope and managing changes to the scope baseline.
Key Benefit: The key benefit of this process is that it allows the scope baseline to be maintained throughout the project.
Inputs
1. Project management plan
2. Requirements documentation
3. Requirements traceability matrix
4. Work performance data
5. Organizational process assets
Tools & Techniques
1. Variance analysis
Outputs
1. Work performance information
2. Change requests
3. Project management plan updates
4. Project documents updates
5. Organizational process assets updates
QUESTION 535
The progressive detailing of the project management plan is called:
A. expert judgment.
B. rolling wave planning.
C. work performance information.
D. specification.
Correct Answer: B Section: Volume D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
6.2.2.2 Rolling Wave Planning
Rolling wave planning is an iterative planning technique in which the work to be accomplished in the near term is planned in detail, while the work in the future is planned at a higher level. It is a form of progressive elaboration.
Therefore, work can exist at various levels of detail depending on where it is in the project life cycle. During early strategic planning, when information is less defined, work packages may be decomposed to the known level of detail. As more is known about the upcoming events in the near term, work packages can be decomposed into activities.
4.2.3.1 Project Management Plan
The project management plan is the document that describes how the project will be executed, monitored, and controlled. It integrates and consolidates all of the subsidiary plans and baselines from the planning processes. Project baselines include, but are not limited to:
Scope baseline (Section 5.4.3.1), Schedule baseline (Section 6.6.3.1), and Cost baseline (Section 7.3.3.1).
Subsidiary plans include, but are not limited to: Scope management plan (Section 5.1.3.1), Requirements management plan (Section 5.1.3.2),
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Schedule management plan (Section 6.1.3.1), Cost management plan (Section 7.1.3.1), Quality management plan (Section 8.1.3.1), Process improvement plan (Section 8.1.3.2),
Human resource management plan (Section 9.1.3.1), Communications management plan (Section 10.1.3.1), Risk management plan (Section 11.1.3.1), Procurement management plan (Section 12.1.3.1), and Stakeholder management plan (Section 13.2.3.1).
Among other things, the project management plan may also include the following:
Life cycle selected for the project and the processes that will be applied to each phase; Details of the tailoring decisions specified by the project management team as follows:
○ Project management processes selected by the project management team,
○ Level of implementation for each selected process,
○ Descriptions of the tools and techniques to be used for accomplishing those processes, and
○ Description of how the selected processes will be used to manage the specific project, including the dependencies and interactions among those processes and the essential inputs and outputs.
Description of how work will be executed to accomplish the project objectives;
Change management plan that documents how changes will be monitored and controlled; Configuration management plan that documents how Configuration management will be performed; Description of how the integrity of the project baselines will be maintained;
Requirements and techniques for communication among stakeholders; and
Key management reviews for content, the extent of, and timing to address, open issues and pending decisions.
The project management plan may be either summary level or detailed, and may be composed of one or more subsidiary plans. Each of the subsidiary plans is detailed to the extent required by the specific project. Once the project management plan is baselined, it may only be changed when a change request is generated and approved through the Perform Integrated Change Control process.
QUESTION 536
What is the responsibility of the project manager and the functional manager respectively?
A. Oversight for an administrative area; a facet of the core business
B. Achieving the project objectives; providing management oversight for an administrative area
C. A facet of the core business; achieving the project objectives
D. Both are responsible for achieving the project objectives.
Correct Answer: B Section: Volume D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 537
Which is used to solicit proposals from prospective sellers?
A. Procurement statement of work
B. Resource calendars
C. Procurement document
D. Independent estimates
Correct Answer: C Section: Volume D Explanation
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Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
12.1.3.3 Procurement Documents
Procurement documents are used to solicit proposals from prospective sellers. Terms such as bid, tender, or quotation are generally used when the seller selection decision will be based on price (as when buying commercial or standard items), while a term such as proposal is generally used when other considerations, such as technical capability or technical approach are paramount. Common terms are in use for different types of procurement documents and may include request for information (RFI), invitation for bid (IFB), request for proposal (RFP), request for quotation (RFQ), tender notice, invitation for negotiation, and invitation for seller’s initial response. Specific procurement terminology used may vary by industry and location of the procurement. The buyer structures procurement documents to facilitate an accurate and complete response from each prospective seller and to facilitate easy evaluation of the responses. These documents include a description of the desired form of the response, the relevant procurement statement of work (SOW) and any required contractual provisions. With government contracting, some or all of the content and structure of procurement documents may be defined by regulation.
The complexity and level of detail of the procurement documents should be consistent with the value of, and risks associated with, the planned procurement. Procurement documents are required to be sufficient to ensure consistent, appropriate responses, but flexible enough to allow consideration of any seller suggestions for better ways to satisfy the same requirements.
Issuing a procurement request to potential sellers to submit a proposal or bid is normally done in accordance with the policies of the buyer’s organization, which can include publication of the request in public newspapers, in trade journals, in public registries, or on the internet.
QUESTION 538
In which Project Management Process Group is the project charter developed?
A. Monitoring and Controlling
B. Executing
C. Initiating
D. Planning
Correct Answer: C Section: Volume D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Initiating Process Group. Those processes performed to define a new project or a new phase of an existing project by obtaining authorization to start the project or phase.
Process: 4.1. Develop Project Charter
Definition: The process of developing a document that formally authorizes the existence of a project and provides the project manager with the authority to apply organizational resources to project activities.
Key Benefit: The key benefit of this process is a well-defined project start and project boundaries, creation of a formal record of the project, and a direct way for senior management to formally accept and commit to the project.
Inputs
1. Project statement of work
2. Business case
3. Agreements
4. Enterprise environmental factors
5. Organizational process assets
Tools & Techniques
1. Expert judgment
2. Facilitation techniques
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Outputs
1. Project charter
QUESTION 539
Which can be used to determine whether a process is stable or has predictable performance?
A. Matrix diagram
B. Histogram
C. Control chart
D. Flowchart
Correct Answer: C Section: Volume D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Control charts, are used to determine whether or not a process is stable or has predictable performance. Upper and lower specification limits are based on requirements of the agreement. They reflect the maximum and minimum values allowed. There may be penalties associated with exceeding the specification limits.
Upper and lower control limits are different from specification limits. The control limits are determined using standard statistical calculations and principles to ultimately establish the natural capability for a stable process. The project manager and appropriate stakeholders may use the statistically calculated control limits to identify the points at which corrective action will be taken to prevent unnatural performance. The corrective action typically seeks to maintain the natural stability of a stable and capable process. For repetitive processes, the control limits are generally set at ±3 s around a process mean that has been set at 0 s. A process is considered out of control when: (1) a data point exceeds a control limit; (2) seven consecutive plot points are above the mean; or (3) seven consecutive plot points are below the mean. Control charts can be used to monitor various types of output variables.
Although used most frequently to track repetitive activities required for producing manufactured lots, control charts may also be used to monitor cost and schedule variances, volume, and frequency of scope changes, or other management results to help determine if the project management processes are in control.
QUESTION 540
When sequencing activities, what does the common acronym FF stand for?
A. Fixed Fee
B. Free Float
C. Fixed Finish
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D. Finish-to-Finish
Correct Answer: D Section: Volume D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A finish-to-start (FS) relationship between two activities implies that the initiation of successor is dependent on the completion of predecessor.
A finish-to-finish (FF) relationship between two activities implies that the completion of successor is dependent on the completion of predecessor.
A start-to-start (SS) relationship implies that the initiation of successor is dependent on the initiation of predecessor.
A start-to-finish (SF) relationship between two activities implies that the completion of successor is dependent on the initiation of its predecessor
QUESTION 541
Which is the correct formula for calculating expected activity cost for three-point estimating?
A. Ce = (C0 + 6Cm + Cp)/4
B. Ce = (6C0 + Cm + Cp)/4
C. Ce = (C0 + 4Cm + Cp)/6
D. Ce = (C0 + C„, + 4Cp) /6
Correct Answer: C Section: Volume D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
6.5.2.4 Three-Point Estimating
The accuracy of single-point activity duration estimates may be improved by considering estimation uncertainty and risk. This concept originated with the program evaluation and review technique (PERT). PERT uses three estimates to define an approximate range for an activity’s duration:
Most likely (tM). This estimate is based on the duration of the activity, given the resources likely to be assigned, their productivity, realistic expectations of availability for the activity, dependencies on other participants, and interruptions.
Optimistic (tO). The activity duration based on analysis of the best-case scenario for the activity.
Pessimistic (tP). The activity duration based on analysis of the worst-case scenario for the activity.
Depending on the assumed distribution of values within the range of the three estimates the expected duration, tE, can be calculated using a formula. Two commonly used formulas are triangular and beta distributions. The formulas are:
Triangular Distribution. tE = (tO + tM + tP) / 3
Beta Distribution (from the traditional PERT technique). tE = (tO + 4tM + tP) / 6
Duration estimates based on three points with an assumed distribution provide an expected duration and clarify the range of uncertainty around the expected duration.
QUESTION 542
Monte Carlo is which type of risk analysis technique?
A. Probability
B. Quantitative
C. Qualitative
D. Sensitivity
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Correct Answer: B Section: Volume D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Monte Carlo Simulation. A process which generates hundreds or thousands of probable performance outcomes based on probability distributions for cost and schedule on individual tasks. The outcomes are then used to generate a probability distribution for the project as a whole.
QUESTION 543
When addressing roles and responsibilities, which item ensures that the staff has the skills required to complete project activities?
A. Authority
B. Role
C. Competency
D. Responsibility
Correct Answer: C Section: Volume D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 544
Which of the following reduces the probability of potential consequences of project risk events?
A. Preventive action
B. Risk management
C. Corrective action
D. Defect repair
Correct Answer: A Section: Volume D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
4.3.3.3 Change Requests
A change request is a formal proposal to modify any document, deliverable, or baseline. An approved change request will replace the associated document, deliverable, or baseline and may result in an update to other parts
of the project management plan. When issues are found while project work is being performed, change requests are submitted, which may modify project policies or procedures, project scope, project cost or budget, project schedule, or project quality. Other change requests cover the needed preventive or corrective actions to forestall negative impact later in the project. Requests for a change can be direct or indirect, externally or internally initiated, and can be optional or legally/contractually mandated, and may include:
Corrective action—An intentional activity that realigns the performance of the project work with the project management plan;
Preventive action—An intentional activity that ensures the future performance of the project work is aligned with the project management plan;
Defect repair—An intentional activity to modify a nonconforming product or product component;
Updates—Changes to formally controlled project documents, plans, etc., to reflect modified or additional
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ideas or content.
QUESTION 545
The project manager needs to review the templates in use. The templates are part of the:
A. Enterprise environmental factors.
B. Historical information,
C. Organizational process assets.
D. Corporate knowledge base.
Correct Answer: C Section: Volume D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 546
Which of the following Project Communication Management processes uses performance reports as an input?
A. Manage Stakeholder Expectations
B. Report Performance
C. Distribute Information
D. Plan Communications
Correct Answer: C Section: Volume D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 547
Which cost estimate technique includes contingencies to account for cost uncertainty?
A. Vendor bid analysis
B. Three-point estimates
C. Parametric estimating
D. Reserve analysis
Correct Answer: D Section: Volume D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
6.5.2.6 Reserve Analysis
Duration estimates may include contingency reserves, sometimes referred to as time reserves or buffers, into the project schedule to account for schedule uncertainty. Contingency reserves are the estimated duration within the schedule baseline, which is allocated for identified risks that are accepted and for which contingent or mitigation responses are developed. Contingency reserves are associated with the “known-unknowns,” which may be estimated to account for this unknown amount of rework.
As more precise information about the project becomes available, the contingency reserve may be used, reduced, or eliminated. Contingency should be clearly identified in schedule documentation.
[..]
Estimates may also be produced for the amount of management reserve of time for the project. Management
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reserves are a specified amount of the project duration withheld for management control purposes and are reserved for unforeseen work that is within scope of the project. Management reserves are intended to address the “unknown-unknowns” that can affect a project. Management reserve is not included in the schedule baseline, but it is part of the overall project duration requirements. Depending on contract terms, use of management reserves may require a change to the schedule baseline.
QUESTION 548
Which of the following is an output of the Perform Integrated Change Control process?
A. Project document updates
B. Organizational process assets updates
C. Change requests
D. Deliverables
Correct Answer: A Section: Volume D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Process: 4.5 Perform Integrated Change Control
Definition: Perform Integrated Change Control is the process of reviewing all change requests; approving changes and managing changes to deliverables, organizational process assets, project documents, and the project management plan; and communicating their disposition. It reviews all requests for changes or modifications to project documents, deliverables, baselines, or the project management plan and approves or rejects the changes.
Key Benefit: The key benefit of this process is that it allows for documented changes within the project to be considered in an integrated fashion while reducing project risk, which often arises from changes made without consideration to the overall project objectives or plans.
Inputs
1. Project management plan
2. Work performance reports
3. Change requests
4. Enterprise environmental factors
5. Organizational process assets
Tools & Techniques
1. Expert judgment
2. Meetings
3. Change control tools
Outputs
1. Approved change requests
2. Change log
3. Project management plan updates
4. Project documents updates
QUESTION 549
Which of the following is an input to Control Scope?
A. Project schedule
B. Organizational process assets updates
C. Project document updates
D. Work performance information
Correct Answer: D
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Section: Volume D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Process: 5.6 Control Scope
Definition: The process of monitoring the status of the project and product scope and managing changes to the scope baseline.
Key Benefit: The key benefit of this process is that it allows the scope baseline to be maintained throughout the project.
Inputs
1. Project management plan
2. Requirements documentation
3. Requirements traceability matrix
4. Work performance data
5. Organizational process assets
Tools & Techniques
1. Variance analysis
Outputs
1. Work performance information
2. Change requests
3. Project management plan updates
4. Project documents updates
5. Organizational process assets updates
QUESTION 550
Lessons learned documentation is gathered during which of the following Project Management Process Groups?
A. Planning
B. Executing
C. Closing
D. Initiating
Correct Answer: C Section: Volume D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
3.7 Closing Process Group
The Closing Process Group consists of those processes performed to conclude all activities across all Project Management Process Groups to formally complete the project, phase, or contractual obligations. This Process Group, when completed, verifes that the defined processes are completed within all of the Process Groups to close the project or a project phase, as appropriate, and formally establishes that the project or project phase is complete.
This Process Group also formally establishes the premature closure of the project. Prematurely closed projects may include, for example: aborted projects, cancelled projects, and projects having a critical situation. In specific cases, when some contracts cannot be formally closed (e.g. claims, termination clauses, etc.) or some activities are to be transferred to other organizational units, specific hand-over procedures may be arranged and finalized.
At project or phase closure, the following may occur:
Obtain acceptance by the customer or sponsor to formally close the project or phase, Conduct post-project or phase-end review,
Record impacts of tailoring to any process,
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Document lessons learned,
Apply appropriate updates to organizational process assets,
Archive all relevant project documents in the project management information system (PMIS) to be used as historical data,
Close out all procurement activities ensuring termination of all relevant agreements, and Perform team members’ assessments and release project resources.

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