Latest CAPM Questions And Answers

Series 15: Latest CAPM Questions And Answers

Series 15: Latest CAPM Questions And Answers

 

QUESTION 761
Which of the following is an output of Close Procurements?

A. Accepted deliverables
B. Organizational process assets updates
C. Managing stakeholder expectations
D. Performance reports

 

Correct Answer: B

 

Explanation:
 Organizational Process Assets Updates

Elements of the organizational process assets that may be updated include, but are not limited to:
Procurement file. A complete set of indexed contract documentation, including the closed contract, is prepared for inclusion with the final project fles.
Deliverable acceptance. Documentation of formal acceptance of seller-provided deliverables may be required to be retained by the organization. The Close Procurement process ensures this documentation requirement is satisfed. Requirements for formal deliverable acceptance and how to address nonconforming deliverables are usually defined in the agreement.
Lessons learned documentation. Lessons learned, what has been experienced, and process improvement recommendations, should be developed for the project fle to improve future procurements.
Process: 12.4 Close Procurements
Definition: The process of completing each project procurement.
Key Benefit: The key benefit of this process is that it documents agreements and related documentation for
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future reference.
Inputs
Project management plan Procurement documents
Tools & Techniques Procurement audits Procurement negotiations Records management system
Outputs
Closed procurements
Organizational process assets updates

QUESTION 762
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What is the tool and technique used to request seller responses?
A. Procurement documents
B. Expert judgment
C. Bidder conferences
D. Contract types
Correct Answer: C Section: Volume E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
12.2.2.1 Bidder Conferences
Bidder conferences (sometimes called contractor conferences, vendor conferences, and pre-bid conferences) are meetings between the buyer and all prospective sellers prior to submittal of a bid or proposal.
They are used to ensure that all prospective sellers have a clear and common understanding of the procurement requirements, and that no bidders receive preferential treatment.
To be fair, buyers should take great care to ensure that all prospective sellers hear every question from any individual prospective seller and every answer from the buyer.
Typically fairness is addressed by techniques such as collecting questions from bidders or arranging field visits in advance of the bidder conference. Responses to questions can be incorporated into the procurement documents as amendments.
QUESTION 763
What process determines which risks might affect the project?
A. Qualitative risk analysis
B. Identify Risks
C. Plan Risk Management
D. Quantitative risk analysis
Correct Answer: B Section: Volume E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Process: 11.2 Identify Risks
Definition: The process of determining which risks may affect the project and documenting their characteristics.
Key Benefit: The key benefit of this process is the documentation of existing risks and the knowledge and ability it provides to the project team to anticipate events.
Inputs
1. Risk management plan
2. Cost management plan
3. Schedule management plan
4. Quality management plan
5. Human resource management plan
6. Scope baseline
7. Activity cost estimates
8. Activity duration estimates
9. Stakeholder register
10. Project documents
11. Procurement documents
12. Enterprise environmental factors
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13. Organizational process assets
Tools & Techniques
1. Documentation reviews
2. Information gathering techniques
3. Checklist analysis
4. Assumptions analysis
5. Diagramming techniques
6. SWOT analysis
7. Expert judgment
Outputs
1. Risk register
11.2.3.1 Risk Register
The primary output from Identify Risks is the initial entry into the risk register. The risk register is a document in which the results of risk analysis and risk response planning are recorded. It contains the outcomes of the other risk management processes as they are conducted, resulting in an increase in the level and type of information contained in the risk register over time. The preparation of the risk register begins in the Identify Risks process with the following information, and then becomes available to other project management and risk management processes:
List of identified risks. The identified risks are described in as much detail as is reasonable. A structure for describing risks using risk statements may be applied, for example, EVENT may occur causing IMPACT, or If CAUSE exists, EVENT may occur leading to EFFECT. In addition to the list of identified risks, the root causes of those risks may become more evident. These are the fundamental conditions or events that may give rise to one or more identified risks. They should be recorded and used to support future risk identification for this and other projects.
List of potential responses. Potential responses to a risk may sometimes be identified during the Identify Risks process. These responses, if identified in this process, should be used as inputs to the Plan Risk Responses process.
QUESTION 764
What scope definition technique is used to generate different approaches to execute and perform the work of the project?
A. Build vs. buy
B. Expert judgment
C. Alternatives identification
D. Product analysis
Correct Answer: C Section: Volume E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 765
When a control chart is used to monitor performance of a process, which of the following will be set by the project manager and the appropriate stakeholders to reflect the point(s) at which corrective action will be taken to prevent exceeding the specification limits?
A. Upper and lower control limits
B. Upper and lower specification limits
C. Process mean
D. Data points
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Correct Answer: A Section: Volume E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 766
Where are product requirements and characteristics documented?
A. Product scope description
B. Project charter
C. Preliminary project scope statement
D. Communications management plan
Correct Answer: A Section: Volume E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Product scope description. The product scope description documents the characteristics of the product, service, or results that the project will be undertaken to create. The description should also document the relationship between the products, services, or results being created and the business need that the project will address.
QUESTION 767
Which Activity Duration Estimating technique incorporates additional timing for contingency purposes?
A. Analogous Estimating
B. Expert Judgment
C. Optimistic Estimates
D. Reserve Analysis
Correct Answer: D Section: Volume E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
6.5.2.6 Reserve Analysis
Duration estimates may include contingency reserves, sometimes referred to as time reserves or buffers, into the project schedule to account for schedule uncertainty. Contingency reserves are the estimated duration within the schedule baseline, which is allocated for identified risks that are accepted and for which contingent or mitigation responses are developed. Contingency reserves are associated with the “known-unknowns,” which may be estimated to account for this unknown amount of rework.
As more precise information about the project becomes available, the contingency reserve may be used, reduced, or eliminated. Contingency should be clearly identified in schedule documentation.
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Estimates may also be produced for the amount of management reserve of time for the project. Management reserves are a specified amount of the project duration withheld for management control purposes and are reserved for unforeseen work that is within scope of the project. Management reserves are intended to address the “unknown-unknowns” that can affect a project. Management reserve is not included in the schedule baseline, but it is part of the overall project duration requirements. Depending on contract terms, use of management reserves may require a change to the schedule baseline.
QUESTION 768
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Which characteristic is unique to project work and does not apply to operational work?
A. Performed by individuals
B. Limited by constraints
C. Temporary
D. Performed to achieve organizational objectives
Correct Answer: C Section: Volume E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 769
Which document describes the procurement item in sufficient detail to allow prospective sellers to determine if they are capable of providing the products, services, or results?
A. Procurement management plan
B. Procurement statement of work
C. Request for proposal
D. Request for quote
Correct Answer: B Section: Volume E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
12.1.3.2 Procurement Statement of Work
The statement of work (SOW) for each procurement is developed from the project scope baseline and defines only that portion of the project scope that is to be included within the related contract. The procurement SOW describes the procurement item in sufficient detail to allow prospective sellers to determine if they are capable of providing the products, services, or results. Sufficient detail can vary based on the nature of the item, the needs of the buyer, or the expected contract form. Information included in a SOW can include specifications, quantity desired, quality levels, performance data, period of performance, work location, and other requirements.
The procurement SOW is written to be clear, complete, and concise. It includes a description of any collateral services required, such as performance reporting or post-project operational support for the procured item. In some application areas, there are specific content and format requirements for a procurement SOW. Each individual procurement item requires a SOW; however, multiple products or services can be grouped as one procurement item within a single SOW.
The procurement SOW can be revised and refined as required as it moves through the procurement process until incorporated into a signed agreement.
QUESTION 770
Which is a tool used in monitoring and controlling project work?
A. Work performance information
B. Project management information system (PMIS)
C. Activity duration estimates
D. Scheduled network analysis
Correct Answer: B Section: Volume E Explanation
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Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 771
Which is an input to the Scope Verification Process?
A. Performance report
B. Work breakdown structure
C. Requested changes
D. Project scope statement
Correct Answer: D Section: Volume E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The project team must complete a scope statement for developing a common understanding of the project scope among stakeholders. This lists project deliverables – summary level sub-products, whose full and satisfactory delivery marks the completion of the project
QUESTION 772
Which is the document that presents a hierarchical project organization?
A. WBS
B. CPI
C. OBS
D. BOM
Correct Answer: C Section: Volume E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 773
Which knowledge area employs the processes required to ensure timely and appropriate generation, collection, distribution, storage, retrieval, and ultimate disposition of project information?
A. Project Risk Management
B. Project Integration Management
C. Project Communications Management
D. Project Quality Management
Correct Answer: C Section: Volume E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
PROJECT COMMUNICATIONS MANAGEMENT
Project Communications Management includes the processes that are required to ensure timely and appropriate planning, collection, creation, distribution, storage, retrieval, management, control, monitoring, and the ultimate disposition of project information. Project managers spend most of their time
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communicating with team members and other project stakeholders, whether they are internal (at all organizational levels) or external to the organization.
Effective communication creates a bridge between diverse stakeholders who may have different cultural and organizational backgrounds, different levels of expertise, and different perspectives and interests, which impact or have an influence upon the project execution or outcome.
QUESTION 774
Which of following could be organizational process assets?
A. Historical information
B. Industry standards
C. Organization infrastructure
D. Marketplace conditions
Correct Answer: A Section: Volume E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
2.1.4 Organizational Process Assets
Organizational process assets are the plans, processes, policies, procedures, and knowledge bases specific to and used by the performing organization. They include any artifact, practice, or knowledge from any or all of the organizations involved in the project that can be used to perform or govern the project. The process assets also include the organization’s knowledge bases such as lessons learned and historical information.
Organizational process assets may include completed schedules, risk data, and earned value data. Organizational process assets are inputs to most planning processes. Throughout the project, the project team members may update and add to the organizational process assets as necessary. Organizational process assets may be grouped into two categories: (1) processes and procedures, and (2) corporate knowledge base.
QUESTION 775
Which of the following are documented directions to perform an activity that can reduce the probability of negative consequences associated with project risks?
A. Recommended corrective actions
B. Recommended preventive actions
C. Risk audits
D. Risk reassessments
Correct Answer: B Section: Volume E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
11.6.3.2 Change Requests
Implementing contingency plans or workarounds sometimes results in a change request. Change requests are prepared and submitted to the Perform Integrated Change Control process (Section 4.5). Change requests can include recommended corrective and preventive actions as well.
Recommended corrective actions. These are activities that realign the performance of the project work with the project management plan. They include contingency plans and workarounds. The latter are responses that were not initially planned, but are required to deal with emerging risks that were previously unidentified or accepted passively.
Recommended preventive actions. These are activities that ensure that future performance of the project work is aligned with the project management plan.
QUESTION 776
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Which of the following are examples of interactive communication?
A. Intranet sites
B. Voice mails
C. Video conferences
D. Press releases
Correct Answer: C Section: Volume E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 777
Which of the following are the components of the scope baseline?
A. Project charter, project scope statement, and work breakdown structure (WBS)
B. Project charter, project management plan, and plan procurement
C. Project scope statement, work breakdown structure (WBS), and WBS dictionary
D. Project management plan, plan procurement, and contract administration
Correct Answer: C Section: Volume E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
5.4.3.1 Scope Baseline
The scope baseline is the approved version of a scope statement, work breakdown structure (WBS), and its associated WBS dictionary, that can be changed only through formal change control procedures and is used as a
basis for comparison. It is a component of the project management plan. Components of the scope baseline include:
Project scope statement. The project scope statement includes the description of the project scope, major deliverables, assumptions, and constraints.
WBS. The WBS is a hierarchical decomposition of the total scope of work to be carried out by the project team to accomplish the project objectives and create the required deliverables. Each descending level of the WBS represents an increasingly detailed definition of the project work. The WBS is finalized by assigning each work package to a control account and establishing a unique identifier for that work package from a code of accounts. These identifiers provide a structure for hierarchical summation of costs, schedule, and resource information. A control account is a management control point where scope, budget, actual cost, and schedule are integrated and compared to the earned value for performance measurement. Control accounts are placed at selected management points in the WBS. Each control account may include one or more work packages, but each of the work packages should be associated with only one control account. A control account may include one or more planning packages. A planning package is a work breakdown structure component below the control account with known work content but without detailed schedule activities.
WBS dictionary. The WBS dictionary is a document that provides detailed deliverable, activity, and scheduling information about each component in the WBS. The WBS dictionary is a document that supports the WBS. Information in the WBS dictionary may include, but is not limited to:
Code of account identifier, Description of work, Assumptions and constraints, Responsible organization, Schedule milestones, Associated schedule activities, Resources required,
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Cost estimates, Quality requirements, Acceptance criteria,
Technical references, and Agreement information.
QUESTION 778
Which of the following buffers protects the target finish date from slippage along the critical chain?
A. Critical buffer
B. Project buffer
C. Duration buffer
D. Feeding buffer
Correct Answer: B Section: Volume E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
6.6.2.3 Critical Chain Method
The critical chain method (CCM) is a schedule method that allows the project team to place buffers on any project schedule path to account for limited resources and project uncertainties. It is developed from the critical path method approach and considers the effects of resource allocation, resource optimization, resource leveling, and activity duration uncertainty on the critical path determined using the critical path method. To do so, the critical chain method introduces the concept of buffers and buffer management. The critical chain method uses activities with durations that do not include safety margins, logical relationships, and resource availability with statistically determined buffers composed of the aggregated safety margins of activities at specified points on the project schedule path to account for limited resources and project uncertainties. The resource-constrained critical path is known as the critical chain.
The critical chain method adds duration buffers that are non-work schedule activities to manage uncertainty. One buffer, placed at the end of the critical chain, as shown in Figure 6-19, is known as the project buffer and protects the target finish date from slippage along the critical chain. Additional buffers, known as feeding buffers, are placed at each point where a chain of dependent activities that are not on the critical chain feeds into the critical chain. Feeding buffers thus protect the critical chain from slippage along the feeding chains.
The size of each buffer should account for the uncertainty in the duration of the chain of dependent activities leading up to that buffer. Once the buffer schedule activities are determined, the planned activities are scheduled to their latest possible planned start and finish dates. Consequently, instead of managing the total float of network paths, the critical chain method focuses on managing the remaining buffer durations against the remaining durations of chains of activities.
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Figure 6-19. Example of Critical Chain Method QUESTION 779
Which of the following correctly describes when organizations and stakeholders are willing to accept varying degrees of risk?
A. Risk analysis
B. Risk tolerance
C. Risk management
D. Risk attitude
Correct Answer: B Section: Volume E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
11 PROJECT RISK MANAGEMENT
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Organizations perceive risk as the effect of uncertainty on projects and organizational objectives. Organizations and stakeholders are willing to accept varying degrees of risk depending on their risk attitude. The risk attitudes of both the organization and the stakeholders may be influenced by a number of factors, which are broadly classifed into three themes:
Risk appetite, which is the degree of uncertainty an entity is willing to take on in anticipation of a reward.
Risk tolerance, which is the degree, amount, or volume of risk that an organization or individual will withstand.
Risk threshold, which refers to measures along the level of uncertainty or the level of impact at which a stakeholder may have a specific interest. Below that risk threshold, the organization will accept the risk. Above that risk threshold, the organization will not tolerate the risk.
For example, an organization’s risk attitude may include its appetite for uncertainty, its threshold for risk levels that are unacceptable, or its risk tolerance at which point the organization may select a different risk response. Positive and negative risks are commonly referred to as opportunities and threats. The project may be accepted if the risks are within tolerances and are in balance with the rewards that may be gained by taking the risks. Positive risks that offer opportunities within the limits of risk tolerances may be pursued in order to generate enhanced value. For example, adopting an aggressive resource optimization technique is a risk taken in anticipation of a reward for using fewer resources.
QUESTION 780
Which of the following correctly lists the configuration management activities included in the Integrated Change Control process?
A. Configuration definition, configuration status accounting, configuration monitoring and control
B. Configuration identification, configuration status accounting, configuration verification and audit
C. Configuration identification, configuration status reporting, configuration verification and audit
D. Configuration definition, configuration status reporting, configuration monitoring and Control
Correct Answer: B Section: Volume E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Configuration control is focused on the specification of both the deliverables and the processes; while change control is focused on identifying, documenting, and approving or rejecting changes to the project documents, deliverables, or baselines.
Some of the configuration management activities included in the Perform Integrated Change Control process
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are as follows:
Configuration identification. Identification and selection of a configuration item to provide the basis for which the product configuration is defined and verified, products and documents are labeled, changes are managed, and accountability is maintained.
Configuration status accounting. Information is recorded and reported as to when appropriate data about the configuration item should be provided. This information includes a listing of approved configuration identification, status of proposed changes to the configuration, and the implementation status of approved changes.
Configuration verification and audit. Configuration verification and configuration audits ensure the composition of a project’s configuration items is correct and that corresponding changes are registered, assessed, approved, tracked, and correctly implemented. This ensures the functional requirements defined in the configuration documentation have been met.
QUESTION 781
Which of the following is a complete set of indexed contract documentation, including the closed contract?
A. Procurement package
B. Negotiated settlements
C. Procurement file
D. Procurement management plan
Correct Answer: C Section: Volume E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
12.4.3.2 Organizational Process Assets Updates
Elements of the organizational process assets that may be updated include, but are not limited to:
Procurement file. A complete set of indexed contract documentation, including the closed contract, is prepared for inclusion with the final project fles.
Deliverable acceptance. Documentation of formal acceptance of seller-provided deliverables may be required to be retained by the organization. The Close Procurement process ensures this documentation requirement is satisfed. Requirements for formal deliverable acceptance and how to address nonconforming deliverables are usually defined in the agreement.
Lessons learned documentation. Lessons learned, what has been experienced, and process improvement recommendations, should be developed for the project fle to improve future procurements.
QUESTION 782
Which of the following is a component of three-point estimates?
A. Probabilistic
B. Most likely
C. Expected
D. Anticipated
Correct Answer: B Section: Volume E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 783
Which of the following is a means of reaching a group decision in which everyone agrees on a single course of
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action?
A. Dictatorship
B. Majority
C. Plurality
D. Unanimity
Correct Answer: D Section: Volume E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 784
Which of the following is a schedule network analysis technique that takes limited resources into account?
A. Network reserve analysis
B. Critical chain method
C. Lead and lag adjustment
D. Critical path method
Correct Answer: B Section: Volume E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
6.6.2.3 Critical Chain Method
The critical chain method (CCM) is a schedule method that allows the project team to place buffers on any project schedule path to account for limited resources and project uncertainties. It is developed from the critical path method approach and considers the effects of resource allocation, resource optimization, resource leveling, and activity duration uncertainty on the critical path determined using the critical path method. To do so, the critical chain method introduces the concept of buffers and buffer management. The critical chain method uses activities with durations that do not include safety margins, logical relationships, and resource availability with statistically determined buffers composed of the aggregated safety margins of activities at specified points on the project schedule path to account for limited resources and project uncertainties. The resource-constrained critical path is known as the critical chain.
QUESTION 785
Which of the following is a schematic display of the project’s schedule activities and the logical relationships among them?
A. Gantt chart
B. Project schedule network diagram
C. Project milestone list
D. Activity list
Correct Answer: B Section: Volume E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 786
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Which of the following is a tool and technique used in all processes within Project Integration Management?
A. Records management system
B. Expert judgment
C. Project management software
D. Issue log
Correct Answer: B Section: Volume E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
4.1.2.1 Expert Judgment
Expert judgment is often used to assess the inputs used to develop the project charter. Expert judgment is applied to all technical and management details during this process. Such expertise is provided by any group or individual with specialized knowledge or training and is available from many sources, including:
Other units within the organization, Consultants,
Stakeholders, including customers or sponsors, Professional and technical associations, Industry groups,
Subject matter experts (SME), and Project management office (PMO).
QUESTION 787
Which of the following is an example of a risk symptom?
A. Failure to meet intermediate milestones
B. Force of nature, such as a flood
C. Risk threshold target
D. Crashing, front loading, or fast tracking
Correct Answer: A Section: Volume E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 788
Which of the following is an example of a technique used in quantitative risk analysis?
A. Sensitivity analysis
B. Probability and impact matrix
C. Risk data quality assessment
D. Risk categorization
Correct Answer: A Section: Volume E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 789
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Which of the following is an example of contract administration?
A. Negotiating the contract
B. Authorizing contractor work
C. Developing the statement of work
D. Establishing evaluation criteria
Correct Answer: B Section: Volume E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 790
Which of the following is an example of push communication?
A. Intranet sites
B. Video conferencing
C. Knowledge repositories
D. Press releases
Correct Answer: D Section: Volume E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
10.1.2.4 Communication Methods
There are several communication methods that are used to share information among project stakeholders. These methods are broadly classifed as follows:
Interactive communication. Between two or more parties performing a multidirectional exchange of information. It is the most effcient way to ensure a common understanding by all participants on specified topics, and includes meetings, phone calls, instant messaging, video conferencing, etc.
Push communication. Sent to specific recipients who need to receive the information. This ensures that the information is distributed but does not ensure that it actually reached or was understood by the intended audience. Push communications include letters, memos, reports, emails, faxes, voice mails, blogs, press releases, etc.
Pull communication. Used for very large volumes of information, or for very large audiences, and requires the recipients to access the communication content at their own discretion. These methods include intranet sites, e-learning, lessons learned databases, knowledge repositories, etc.
The choices of communication methods that are used for a project may need to be discussed and agreed upon by the project stakeholders based on communication requirements; cost and time constraints; and familiarity and availability of the required tools and resources that may be applicable to the communications process.
QUESTION 791
Which of the following is an input into the Develop Project Team process?
A. Enterprise environmental factors
B. Organizational process assets
C. Project staff assignments
D. Performance reports
Correct Answer: C
Section: Volume E
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Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
9.3 Develop Project Team
Definition: The process of improving competencies, team member interaction, and overall team environment to enhance project performance.
Key Benefit: The key benefit of this process is that it results in improved teamwork, enhanced people skills and competencies, motivated employees, reduced staff turnover rates, and improved overall project performance.
Inputs
1. Human resource management plan
2. Project staff assignments
3. Resource calendars
Tools & Techniques
1. Interpersonal skills
2. Training
3. Team-building activities
4. Ground rules
5. Colocation
6. Recognition and rewards
7. Personnel assessment tools
Outputs
1. Team performance assessments
2. Enterprise environmental factors updates
QUESTION 792
Which of the following is an input to the Plan Risk Responses process?
A. Risk urgency assessment
B. Organizational process assets
C. Risk register
D. Schedule management plan
Correct Answer: C Section: Volume E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
11.2.3.1 Risk Register
The primary output from Identify Risks is the initial entry into the risk register. The risk register is a document in which the results of risk analysis and risk response planning are recorded. It contains the outcomes of the other risk management processes as they are conducted, resulting in an increase in the level and type of information contained in the risk register over time. The preparation of the risk register begins in the Identify Risks process with the following information, and then becomes available to other project management and risk management processes:
List of identified risks. The identified risks are described in as much detail as is reasonable. A structure for describing risks using risk statements may be applied, for example, EVENT may occur causing IMPACT, or If CAUSE exists, EVENT may occur leading to EFFECT. In addition to the list of identified risks, the root causes of those risks may become more evident. These are the fundamental conditions or events that may give rise to one or more identified risks. They should be recorded and used to support future risk identification for this and other projects.
List of potential responses. Potential responses to a risk may sometimes be identified during the Identify
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Risks process. These responses, if identified in this process, should be used as inputs to the Plan Risk Responses process.
Process: 11.5 Plan Risk Responses
Definition: The process of developing options and actions to enhance opportunities and to reduce threats to project objectives.
Key Benefit: The key benefit of this process is that it addresses the risks by their priority, inserting resources and activities into the budget, schedule and project management plan as needed.
Inputs
1. Risk management plan
2. Risk register
Tools & Techniques
1. Strategies for negative risks or threats
2. Strategies for positive risks or opportunities
3. Contingent response strategies
4. Expert judgment
Outputs
1. Project management plan updates
2. Project documents updates
QUESTION 793
Which of the following is an output of the Plan Quality process?
A. Project document update
B. Control chart
C. Cost performance baseline
D. Organizational process asset update
Correct Answer: A Section: Volume E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 794
Which of the following is the correct network diagram for the table?
A. Begin-A-C-D-E-End-B-D
B. Begin-A-B-C-D-E-End
C. Begin-A-B-D-E-End A-C-D
D. Begin-A-C-D-E-End-B-C
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Correct Answer: A Section: Volume E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 795
Which of the following is the process of identifying the specific actions to be performed to produce the project deliverables?
A. Estimate Activity Durations
B. Sequence Activities
C. Define Activities
D. Activity Attributes
Correct Answer: C Section: Volume E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Process: 6.2 Define Activities
Definition: The process of identifying and documenting the specific actions to be performed to produce the project deliverables.
Key Benefit: The key benefit of this process is to break down work packages into activities that provide a basis for estimating, scheduling, executing, monitoring, and controlling the project work.
Inputs
1. Schedule management plan
2. Scope baseline
3. Enterprise environmental factors
4. Organizational process assets
Tools & Techniques
1. Decomposition
2. Rolling wave planning
3. Expert judgment
Outputs
1. Activity list
2. Activity attributes
3. Milestone list
QUESTION 796
Which of the following methods is a project selection technique?
A. Flowcharting
B. Earned value
C. Cost-benefit analysis
D. Pareto analysis
Correct Answer: C Section: Volume E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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Explanation:
8.1.2.1 Cost-Benefit Analysis
The primary benefits of meeting quality requirements include less rework, higher productivity, lower costs, increased stakeholder satisfaction, and increased profitability. A cost-benefit analysis for each quality activity compares the cost of the quality step to the expected benefit.
QUESTION 797
Which of the following methods of performance review examines project performance over time to determine if performance is improving or deteriorating?
A. Earned value performance
B. Trend analysis
C. Cost-benefit analysis
D. Variance analysis
Correct Answer: B Section: Volume E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 798
Which of the following processes are within the Initiating Process Group?
A. Develop Project Management Plan and Identify Stakeholders
B. Develop Project Management Plan and Plan Communications
C. Develop Project Charter and Identify Stakeholders
D. Develop Project Charter and Develop Project Scope Statement
Correct Answer: C Section: Volume E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Initiating Process Group
4.1 Develop Project Charter
13.1 Identify Stakeholders
QUESTION 799
Which of the following tools and techniques is used in the Develop Project Team process?
A. Acquisitions
B. Organizational theories
C. Team-building activities
D. Virtual teams
Correct Answer: C Section: Volume E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
9.3.2.3 Team-Building Activities
Team-building activities can vary from a 5-minute agenda item in a status review meeting to an off-site,
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professionally facilitated experience designed to improve interpersonal relationships. The objective of team- building activities is to help individual team members work together effectively. Team-building strategies are particularly valuable when team members operate from remote locations without the beneft of face-to-face contact. Informal communication and activities can help in building trust and establishing good working relationships.
As an ongoing process, team building is crucial to project success. While team building is essential during the initial stages of a project, it is a never-ending process. Changes in a project environment are inevitable, and to manage them effectively, a continued or a renewed team-building effort should be applied. The project manager should continually monitor team functionality and performance to determine if any actions are needed to prevent or correct various team problems.
One of the models used to describe team development is the Tuckman ladder (Tuckman, 1965; Tuckman & Jensen, 1977), which includes fve stages of development that teams may go through. Although it’s common for these stages to occur in order, it’s not uncommon for a team to get stuck in a particular stage or slip to an earlier stage. Projects with team members who worked together in the past may skip a stage.
Forming. This phase is where the team meets and learns about the project and their formal roles and responsibilities. Team members tend to be independent and not as open in this phase.
Storming. During this phase, the team begins to address the project work, technical decisions, and the project management approach. If team members are not collaborative and open to differing ideas and perspectives, the environment can become counterproductive.
Norming. In the norming phase, team members begin to work together and adjust their work habits and behaviors to support the team. The team learns to trust each other.
Performing. Teams that reach the performing stage function as a well-organized unit. They are interdependent and work through issues smoothly and effectively.
Adjourning. In the adjourning phase, the team completes the work and moves on from the project. This typically occurs when staff is released from the project as deliverables are completed or as part of carrying out the Close Project or Phase process (Section 4.6). The duration of a particular stage depends upon team dynamics, team size, and team leadership. Project managers should have a good understanding of team dynamics in order to move their team members through all stages in an effective manner.
9.3 Develop Project Team
Definition: The process of improving competencies, team member interaction, and overall team environment to enhance project performance.
Key Benefit: The key benefit of this process is that it results in improved teamwork, enhanced people skills and competencies, motivated employees, reduced staff turnover rates, and improved overall project performance.
Inputs
1. Human resource management plan
2. Project staff assignments
3. Resource calendars
Tools & Techniques
1. Interpersonal skills
2. Training
3. Team-building activities
4. Ground rules
5. Colocation
6. Recognition and rewards
7. Personnel assessment tools
Outputs
1. Team performance assessments
2. Enterprise environmental factors updates
QUESTION 800
Which of the following tools and techniques is used to estimate cost?
A. Budget forecast
B. Variance analysis
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C. Activity cost estimate
D. Three-point estimate
Correct Answer: D Section: Volume E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Three-Point Estimate. A technique used to estimate cost or duration by applying an average of optimistic, pessimistic, and most likely estimates when there is uncertainty with the individual activity estimates.
QUESTION 801
Which of the following tools will be used to produce performance reports that provide information to stakeholders about project cost, schedule progress, and performance?
A. Communications methods
B. Reporting systems
C. Forecasting methods
D. Variance analysis
Correct Answer: B Section: Volume E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reporting Systems. Facilities, processes, and procedures used to generate or consolidate reports from one or more information management systems and facilitate report distribution to the project stakeholders.
QUESTION 802
Which of the following will provide the basis for estimating, scheduling, executing, and monitoring and controlling project work?
A. Activities
B. Milestone list
C. Work breakdown structure (WBS)
D. Work packages
Correct Answer: A Section: Volume E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 803
Which of the Project Time Management processes analyzes activity sequencing, durations, resource requirements, and schedule constraints?
A. Estimate Activity Durations
B. Control Schedule
C. Sequence Activities
D. Develop Schedule
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Correct Answer: D Section: Volume E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Process: 6.6 Develop Schedule
Definition: The process of analyzing activity sequences, durations, resource requirements, and schedule constraints to create the project schedule model.
Key Benefit: The key benefit of this process is that by entering schedule activities, durations, resources, resource availabilities, and logical relationships into the scheduling tool, it generates a schedule model with planned dates for completing project activities.
Inputs
1. Schedule management plan
2. Activity list
3. Activity attributes
4. Project schedule network diagrams
5. Activity resource requirements
6. Resource calendars
7. Activity duration estimates
8. Project scope statement
9. Risk register
10. Project staff assignments
11. Resource breakdown structure
12. Enterprise environmental factors
13. Organizational process assets
Tools & Techniques
1. Schedule network analysis
2. Critical path method
3. Critical chain method
4. Resource optimization techniques
5. Modeling techniques
6. Leads and lags
7. Schedule compression
8. .Scheduling tool
Outputs
1. Schedule baseline
2. .Project schedule
3. Schedule data
4. Project calendars
5. Project management plan updates
6. Project documents updates
QUESTION 804
Which process group contains the processes performed to finalize all activities?
A. Planning Process Group
B. Executing Process Group
C. Monitoring and Controlling Process Group
D. Closing Process Group
Correct Answer: D Section: Volume E Explanation
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Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
• Closing Process Group. Those processes performed to finalize all activities across all Process Groups to formally close the project or phase.
QUESTION 805
Which schedule development technique modifies the project schedule to account for limited resources?
A. Human resource planning
B. Fast tracking
C. Critical chain method
D. Rolling wave planning
Correct Answer: C Section: Volume E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
6.6.2.3 Critical Chain Method
The critical chain method (CCM) is a schedule method that allows the project team to place buffers on any project schedule path to account for limited resources and project uncertainties. It is developed from the critical path method approach and considers the effects of resource allocation, resource optimization, resource leveling, and activity duration uncertainty on the critical path determined using the critical path method. To do so, the critical chain method introduces the concept of buffers and buffer management. The critical chain method uses activities with durations that do not include safety margins, logical relationships, and resource availability with statistically determined buffers composed of the aggregated safety margins of activities at specified points on the project schedule path to account for limited resources and project uncertainties. The resource-constrained critical path is known as the critical chain.
QUESTION 806
Which stakeholder communicates with higher levels of management to gather organizational support and promote project benefits?
A. Portfolio manager
B. Project sponsor
C. Project manager
D. Project management office
Correct Answer: B Section: Volume E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Sponsor. A sponsor is the person or group who provides resources and support for the project and is accountable for enabling success. The sponsor may be external or internal to the project manager’s organization. From initial conception through project closure, the sponsor promotes the project. This includes serving as spokesperson to higher levels of management to gather support throughout the organization and promoting the benefits the project brings. The sponsor leads the project through the initiating processes until formally authorized, and plays a significant role in the development of the initial scope and charter. For issues that are beyond the control of the project manager, the sponsor serves as an escalation path. The sponsor may also be involved in other important issues such as authorizing changes in scope, phase-end reviews, and go/no-go decisions when risks are particularly high. The sponsor also ensures a smooth transfer of the project’s deliverables into the business of the requesting organization after project closure.
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QUESTION 807
Which standard examines an enterprise’s project management process capabilities?
A. PMBOK Guide
B. The Standard for Program Management.
C. Organizational Project Management Maturity Model “OPM3”
D. The Standard for Portfolio Management
Correct Answer: C Section: Volume E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 808
Which tool or technique is used to develop a project charter?
A. Project manager information systems
B. Expert judgment
C. Change control meetings
D. Brainstorming
Correct Answer: B Section: Volume E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
4.1.2.1 Expert Judgment
Expert judgment is often used to assess the inputs used to develop the project charter. Expert judgment is applied to all technical and management details during this process. Such expertise is provided by any group or individual with specialized knowledge or training and is available from many sources, including:
Other units within the organization, Consultants,
Stakeholders, including customers or sponsors, Professional and technical associations, Industry groups,
Subject matter experts (SME), and Project management office (PMO).
Process: 4.1. Develop Project Charter
Definition: The process of developing a document that formally authorizes the existence of a project and provides the project manager with the authority to apply organizational resources to project activities.
Key Benefit: The key benefit of this process is a well-defined project start and project boundaries, creation of a formal record of the project, and a direct way for senior management to formally accept and commit to the project.
Inputs
1. Project statement of work
2. Business case
3. Agreements
4. Enterprise environmental factors
5. Organizational process assets
Tools & Techniques
1. Expert judgment
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2. Facilitation techniques
Outputs
1. Project charter

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